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NEW QUESTION 1
When starting an investigation, which of the following must be done first?
A. Notify law enforcement.
B. Secure the scene.
C. Seize all related evidence.
D. Interview the witnesses.
NEW QUESTION 2
An incident response team finished responding to a significant security incident. The management team has asked the lead analyst to provide an after-action report that includes lessons learned. Which of the following is the most likely reason to include lessons learned?
A. To satisfy regulatory requirements for incident reporting.
B. To hold other departments accountable.
C. To identify areas of improvement in the incident response process.
D. To highlight the notable practices of the organization’s incident response team.
NEW QUESTION 3
A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. Which of the following has the user become?
B. Advanced persistent threat.
C. Insider threat.
D. Script kiddie.
NEW QUESTION 4
During an incident, an analyst needs to acquire evidence for later investigation. Which of the following must be collected first in a computer system, related to its volatility level?
A. Disk contents.
B. Backup data.
C. Temporary files.
D. Running processes.
NEW QUESTION 5
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?
The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L).
NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)
A. Lessons learned.
B. Service-level agreement.
D. Affected hosts.
E. Risk score.
F. Education plan.
– Affected hosts: The vulnerability scan report should clearly list the hosts or systems that are affected by the identified vulnerabilities. This information is crucial for understanding the scope of the vulnerabilities and taking appropriate remediation actions.
– Risk score: Vulnerability scans often assign risk scores or severity ratings to each identified vulnerability. These scores help prioritize remediation efforts by indicating the potential impact and exploitability of the vulnerabilities. Including risk scores in the report provides an understanding of the relative severity of the identified vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION 7
A company’s user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company’s internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?
A. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causing port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access.
B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80.
C. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80.
D. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company’s internal routers.
The fact that the company’s internal portal is sometimes accessible through HTTP (port 80) and other times through HTTPS (port 443) suggests that someone with internal access is actively manipulating the network traffic. An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies communication between two parties. By forcing users into using HTTP instead of HTTPS, the attacker can potentially capture sensitive information transmitted over the network, such as login credentials or session data. An issue with the SSL certificate (Option A) would generally result in HTTPS not working at all, rather than it being intermittently accessible. A web server unable to handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests (Option C) would likely result in performance issues or server errors, but it wouldn’t selectively redirect users to HTTP. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used for routing between autonomous systems on the internet, and it generally would not cause the internal portal to switch between HTTP and HTTPS. It is more relevant to external internet routing.
NEW QUESTION 8
A company that has a geographically diverse workforce and dynamic IPs wants to implement a vulnerability scanning method with reduced network traffic. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?
A. Business continuity plan.
B. Vulnerability management plan.
C. Disaster recovery plan.
D. Asset management plan.
A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a document that outlines the steps that an organization will take to recover from a disaster. This includes identifying the organization’s critical systems and data, developing a plan to restore those systems and data, and testing the plan regularly.
NEW QUESTION 10
An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first?
B. Vulnerability Scanner
D. Web Server
A DDoS attack is a type of attack that floods a target with more traffic than it can handle. This can cause the target to become unavailable to legitimate users. The DNS logs will show the IP addresses of the devices that were sending the traffic to the target. This information can be used to identify the attackers. The other logs may also be helpful in investigating a DDoS attack, but they are less likely to provide the same level of detail as the DNS logs.
NEW QUESTION 11
An incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. Which of the following best describes what is happening? (Choose two.)
B. Domain Name System hijacking.
C. Social engineering attack.
D. On-path attack.
E. Obfuscated links.
F. Address Resolution Protocol poisoning.
– Social engineering attack: This is a type of attack that relies on tricking the victim into clicking on a malicious link or opening an attachment. In this case, the concealed URL in the email is likely a malicious link that will lead the victim to a website that is controlled by the attacker. Once the victim clicks on the link, the attacker can then install malware on the victim’s computer or steal their personal information.
– Obfuscated links: This is a technique used to hide the true destination of a link. This can be done by using a variety of methods, such as using shortened URLs or encoding the URL in a way that makes it difficult to read. In this case, the concealed URL in the email is likely obfuscated, which makes it more difficult for the victim to identify as malicious.
NEW QUESTION 12
A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program, and there are concerns about granting the security team access to sensitive data. Which of the following scanning methods can be implemented to reduce the access to systems while providing the most accurate vulnerability scan results?
A. credentialed network scanning
B. passive scanning
C. agent-based scanning
D. dynamic scanning
NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following would help to minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations?
NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the best action to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future?
A. Develop a call tree to inform impacted users.
B. Schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred.
C. Create an executive summary to update company leadership.
D. Review regulatory compliance with public relations for official notification.
NEW QUESTION 15
A security analyst received a malicious binary file to analyze. Which of the following is the best technique to perform the analysis?
A. Code analysis.
B. Static analysis.
C. Reverse engineering.
Reverse engineering is the process of decompiling a program to its source code, or of analyzing a binary file to understand its function. This is the best technique to perform the analysis of a malicious binary file, as it allows the analyst to see the code that the malware is actually running. This can help the analyst to identify the malware’s purpose, its capabilities, and how it spreads.
NEW QUESTION 16
An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to?
A. PCI Security Standards Council.
B. Local law enforcement.
C. Federal law enforcement.
D. Card issuer.
NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan?
A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan.
B. Determine the site to be used during a disaster.
C. Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process.
D. Identify applications to be run during a disaster.
NEW QUESTION 18
A new cybersecurity analyst is tasked with creating an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization. Which of the following will produce the data needed for the briefing?
A. Firewall logs.
B. Indicators of compromise.
C. Risk assessment.
D. Access control lists.
NEW QUESTION 19
Joe, a leading sales person at an organization, has announced on social media that he is leaving his current role to start a new company that will compete with his current employer. Joe is soliciting his current employer’s customers. However, Joe has not resigned or discussed this with his current supervisor yet. Which of the following would be the best action for the incident response team to recommend?
A. Isolate Joe’s PC from the network.
B. Reimage the PC based on standard operating procedures.
C. Initiate a remote wipe of Joe’s PC using mobile device management.
D. Perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps.
NEW QUESTION 20
During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?
A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis.
B. Log m to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs.
C. Restore from the last known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity.
D. Shut down the affected server immediately.
NEW QUESTION 21
A software developer is correcting the error-handling capabilities of an application following the initial coding of the fix. Which of the following would the software developer MOST likely performed to validate the code poor to pushing it to production?
A. Web-application vulnerability scan.
B. Static analysis.
C. Packet inspection.
D. Penetration test.
What is static analysis? Static analysis is a method of analyzing code for defects, bugs, or security issues prior to pushing to production.
NEW QUESTION 22
Which of the following BEST explains the function of a managerial control?
A. To help design and implement the security planning, program development, and maintenance of the security life cycle.
B. To guide the development of training, education, security awareness programs, and system maintenance.
C. To create data classification, risk assessments, security control reviews, and contingency planning.
D. To ensure tactical design, selection of technology to protect data, logical access reviews, and the implementation of audit trails.
Managerial controls are procedural mechanisms that focus on the mechanics of the risk management process. Examples of administrative controls include periodic risk assessments, security planning exercises, and the incorporation of security into the organization’s change management, service acquisition, and project management practices.
NEW QUESTION 23
Which of the following types of controls defines placing an ACL on a file folder?
A. Technical control.
B. Confidentiality control.
C. Managerial control.
D. Operational control.
Technical controls enforce confidentiality, integrity, and availability in the digital space. Examples of technical security controls include firewall rules, access control lists, intrusion prevention systems, and encryption.
NEW QUESTION 24
A consultant evaluating multiple threat intelligence leads to assess potential risks for a client. Which of the following is the BEST approach for the consultant to consider when modeling the client’s attack surface?
A. Ask for external scans from industry peers, look at the open ports, and compare Information with the client.
B. Discuss potential tools the client can purchase lo reduce the livelihood of an attack.
C. Look at attacks against similar industry peers and assess the probability of the same attacks happening.
D. Meet with the senior management team to determine if funding is available for recommended solutions.
Asking scans from other companies would reveal their vulnerabilities and impossible to get.
NEW QUESTION 25
A company’s application development has been outsourced to a third-party development team. Based on the SLA, the development team must follow industry best practices for secure coding. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify this agreement?
A. Input validation.
B. Security regression testing.
C. Application fuzzing.
D. User acceptance testing.
E. Stress testing.
Threat actors use fuzzing to find zero-day exploits – this is known as a fuzzing attack. Security professionals, on the other hand, leverage fuzzing techniques to assess the security and stability of applications.
NEW QUESTION 26
A security administrator needs to provide access from partners to an Isolated laboratory network inside an organization that meets the following requirements:
– The partners’ PCs must not connect directly to the laboratory network.
– The tools the partners need to access while on the laboratory network must be available to all partners.
– The partners must be able to run analyses on the laboratory network, which may take hours to complete.
Which of the following capabilities will MOST likely meet the security objectives of the request?
A. Deployment of a jump box to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI in persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis.
B. Deployment of a firewall to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI in non-persistent mode to provide the necessary tools tor analysis.
C. Deployment of a firewall to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI in persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis.
D. Deployment of a jump box to allow access to the Laboratory network and use of VDI in non-persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis.
NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons lo include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Choose two.)
A. To establish a clear chain of command.
B. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting.
C. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach.
D. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach.
E. To isolate potential insider threats.
F. To provide secure network design changes.
NEW QUESTION 28
Which of the following is MOST dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test?
A. There is a longer period of time to assess the environment.
B. The testing is outside the contractual scope.
C. There is a shorter period of time to assess the environment.
D. No status reports are included with the assessment.
The point is that scans outside the scope can accidentally break it. That’s dangerous to the customer’s environment.
NEW QUESTION 29
Which of the following is MOST important when developing a threat hunting program?
A. Understanding penetration testing techniques.
B. Understanding how to build correlation rules within a SIEM.
C. Understanding security software technologies.
D. Understanding assets and categories of assets.
When creating a threat hunting program it is important to start by developing standardized processes to guide threat hunting efforts. Security teams should outline when and how hunting takes place (whether at scheduled intervals, in response to specific triggering actions, or continuously with the help of automated tools), what techniques are to be used, and which people and TOOLS will be responsible for performing specific threat hunting tasks.
NEW QUESTION 30
An IT security analyst has received an email alert regarding a vulnerability within the new fleet of vehicles the company recently purchased. Which of the following attack vectors is the vulnerability MOST likely targeting?
B. CAN bus
C. Mod bus
The Controller Area Network – CAN bus is a message-based protocol designed to allow the Electronic Control Units (ECUs) found in today’s automobiles, as well as other devices, to communicate with each other in a reliable, priority-driven fashion. Messages or “frames” are received by all devices in the network, which does not require a host computer.
NEW QUESTION 31
A help desk technician inadvertently sent the credentials of the company’s CRM n clear text to an employee’s personal email account. The technician then reset the employee’s account using the appropriate process and the employee’s corporate email, and notified the security team of the incident. According to the incident response procedure, which of the following should the security team do NEXT?
A. Contact the CRM vendor.
B. Prepare an incident summary report.
C. Perform postmortem data correlation.
D. Update the incident response plan.
A post-mortem report is not mentioned in the NIST standard.
NEW QUESTION 32
While implementing a PKI for a company, a security analyst plans to utilize a dedicated server as the certificate authority that is only used to sign intermediate certificates. Which of the following are the MOST secure states for the certificate authority server when it is not in use? (Choose two.)
A. On a private VLAN.
B. Full disk encrypted.
C. Powered off.
D. Backed up hourly.
E. VPN accessible only.
F. Air gapped.
NEW QUESTION 33
An organization has the following policy statements:
– AlI emails entering or leaving the organization will be subject to inspection for malware, policy violations, and unauthorized coolant.
– All network activity will be logged and monitored.
– Confidential data will be tagged and tracked.
– Confidential data must never be transmitted in an unencrypted form.
– Confidential data must never be stored on an unencrypted mobile device.
Which of the following is the organization enforcing?
A. Acceptable use policy.
C. Encryption policy.
D. Data management policy.
NEW QUESTION 34
A security analyst needs to provide the development learn with secure connectivity from the corporate network to a three-tier cloud environment. The developers require access to servers in all three tiers in order to perform various configuration tasks. Which of the following technologies should the analyst implement to provide secure transport?
Just as a virtual private network (VPN) provides secure data transfer over the public Internet, a VPC provides secure data transfer between a private enterprise and a public cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION 35
The majority of a company’s employees have stated they are unable to perform their job duties due to outdated workstations, so the company has decided to institute BYOD. Which of the following would a security analyst MOST likely recommend for securing the proposed solution?
A. A Linux-based system and mandatory training on Linux for all BYOD users.
B. A firewalled environment for client devices and a secure VDl for BYOO users.
C. A standardized anti-malware platform and a unified operating system vendor.
D. 802.1X to enforce company policy on BYOD user hardware.
After reviewing 802.1x, it can keep infected machines from connecting to the network.
NEW QUESTION 36
An online gaming company was impacted by a ransomware attack. An employee opened an attachment that was received via an SMS attack on a company-issue firewall. Which following actions would help during the forensic analysis of the mobile device? (Choose two.)
A. Resetting the phone to factory settings.
B. Rebooting the phone and installing the latest security updates.
C. Documenting the respective chain of custody.
D. Uninstalling any potentially unwanted programs.
E. Performing a memory dump of the mobile device for analysis.
F. Unlocking the device by blowing the eFuse.
NEW QUESTION 37
Which of the following APT adversary archetypes represent non-nation-state threat actors? (Choose two.)
Definitely Jackal and Spider.
NEW QUESTION 38
An analyst is responding to an incident involving an attack on a company-owned mobile device that was being used by an employee to collect data from clients in the field. Malware was loaded on the device via the installation of a third-party software package. The analyst has baselined the device. Which of the following should the analyst do to BEST mitigate future attacks?
A. Implement MDM.
B. Update the maiware catalog.
C. Patch the mobile device’s OS.
D. Block third-party applications.
MDM solution to manage the configuration of those devices, automatically installing patches, requiring the use of encryption, and providing remote wiping functionality. MDM solutions may also restrict the applications that can be run on a mobile device to those that appear on an approved list.
NEW QUESTION 39
An organization wants to ensure the privacy of the data that is on its systems. Full disk encryption and DLP are already in use. Which of the following is the BEST option?
A. Require all remote employees to sign an NDA.
B. Enforce geofencing to limit data accessibility.
C. Require users to change their passwords more frequently.
D. Update the AUP to restrict data sharing.
Privacy is control over your data. An NDA doesn’t necessarily enforce anything. Anyone can still blab. However, if you’re geofencing, folks can only access it from the specified area(s). That’s enforcing control.
NEW QUESTION 40
A company’s legal and accounting teams have decided it would be more cost-effective to offload the risks of data storage to a third party. The IT management team has decided to implement a cloud model and has asked the security team for recommendations. Which of the following will allow all data to be kept on the third-party network?
The questions isn’t asking which cloud model is to be used. It’s asking which of the following choices will ALLOW (give permission, authorization, unhindered access) to keep ALL DATA (could be PII or other sensitive data) on THIRD-PARTY NETWORK (Cloud Service Provider’s Network). Assuming the IT Management team has chosen SaaS as their cloud model, this doesn’t mention how the data will be monitored, secured and other requirements to ensure the company is within compliance. What if the cloud provider is located in a location that doesn’t allow specific data to be stored in that location? With a CASB deployed either locally or within the cloud the security team would be able to ensure policies are still enforced, monitor user activity, maintain logs, etc. This means if you are in the US and for reasons you have data that contains PII on a citizen from another country that doesn’t allow the US to maintain or collect that data, the CASB would be able to prevent that data from being stored. Staying in compliance and providing proper threat management allows all data to be kept on a third part network.
NEW QUESTION 41
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