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NEW QUESTION 984
An administrator must secure several end-of-life SCADA devices in a manufacturing facility on a limited budget. Which of the following should the security administrator do to best secure these devices?
A. Segment the SCADA devices to their own subnet.
B. Add the SCADA devices to a network monitoring tool.
C. Apply security patches to the SCADA devices.
D. Block internet access to the SCADA devices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network segmentation isolates end-of-life SCADA devices from other systems, reducing the attack surface and limiting lateral movement, which is critical when patching or direct security updates are not possible.
NEW QUESTION 985
A business is expanding to a new country and must protect customers from accidental disclosure of specific national identity information. Which of the following should the security engineer update to best meet business requirements?
A. SIEM
B. SCAP
C. DLP
D. WAF
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can be configured to detect and prevent the unauthorized transmission of specific national identity information, ensuring compliance with privacy regulations in the new country.
NEW QUESTION 986
Which of the following techniques would identify whether data has been modified in transit?
A. Hashing
B. Tokenization
C. Masking
D. Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hashing creates a unique fixed-length value based on the data, allowing verification of integrity by comparing the hash before and after transit to detect any modifications.
NEW QUESTION 987
Which of the following strategies most effectively protects sensitive data at rest in a database?
A. Hashing
B. Masking
C. Tokenization
D. Obfuscation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive, unique tokens while storing the actual data securely in a separate location, effectively protecting data at rest in a database.
NEW QUESTION 988
Which of the following would an organization most likely use to minimize the loss of data on a file server in the event that data needs to be restored due to loss of the primary server?
A. Monitoring
B. Journaling
C. Obfuscation
D. Tokenization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Journaling records changes to files in real time, enabling quick restoration of the most recent data in case of primary server failure, thereby minimizing potential data loss.
NEW QUESTION 989
Which of the following would help reduce the impact of a zero-day vulnerability in NAS installed on a large office network?
A. Encryption
B. Patching
C. Segmentation
D. Filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
Segmentation isolates the NAS from the broader network, limiting an attacker’s ability to exploit the zero-day vulnerability and reducing the potential impact on other systems.
NEW QUESTION 990
Which of the following should a security analyst use to prioritize the remediation of a vulnerability?
A. OSINT
B. CVE
C. IoC
D. CVSS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) provides a standardized severity score for vulnerabilities, enabling analysts to prioritize remediation efforts based on risk impact.
NEW QUESTION 991
An IT team rolls out a new management application that uses a randomly generated MFA token that is sent to the administrator’s phone. Despite this new MFA precaution, there is a security breach of the same software. Which of the following describes this kind of attack?
A. Smishing
B. Typosquatting
C. Espionage
D. Pretexting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Smishing uses fraudulent SMS messages to trick victims into revealing sensitive information or clicking malicious links, potentially compromising MFA tokens sent to a phone.
NEW QUESTION 992
A company hired a security consultant to suggest a device that will protect its inbound HTTP traffic by immediately blocking security violations. Which of the following should the consultant most likely suggest?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. Proxy
D. WAF
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) protects inbound HTTP traffic by monitoring, filtering, and immediately blocking malicious requests targeting web applications.
NEW QUESTION 993
A security manager needs an automated solution that will take immediate action to protect an organization against inbound malicious traffic. Which of the following is the best solution?
A. UEM
B. IPS
C. WAF
D. VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) automatically detects and blocks malicious network traffic in real time, providing immediate protection against inbound threats.
NEW QUESTION 994
A Chief Security Officer wants to change user authentication to the company wireless network. The authentication must use the LDAP database and must be centrally managed. Which of the following would help fulfill this requirement?
A. SAML
B. TACACS+
C. OAUTH
D. RADIUS
Answer: D
Explanation:
RADIUS provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting, and it can integrate with an LDAP database to authenticate users connecting to the company’s wireless network.
NEW QUESTION 995
An administrator is creating domain profiles for each employee within the company. The administrator wants to make the process more efficient by assigning permissions based on user roles and departments. Which of the following would most likely fulfill those requirements?
A. Resource provisioning.
B. User provisioning.
C. Security groups.
D. Enforcing baselines.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Security groups allow administrators to assign permissions collectively based on user roles or departments, streamlining domain profile management and reducing repetitive configuration tasks.
NEW QUESTION 996
A systems administrator needs to update systems without disrupting operations. Which of the following should the systems administrator and company leadership agree on?
A. Maintenance window.
B. Backout plan.
C. Standard operating procedure.
D. Impact analysis.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A maintenance window is a scheduled period agreed upon in advance during which updates or changes can be made without disrupting normal business operations.
NEW QUESTION 997
A company wants to improve the security of the local network by authenticating and encrypting all of the internal traffic between corporate sites. Which of the following should the company deploy to achieve this goal?
A. ЕАР
B. IPSec
C. SD-WAN
D. WAF
Answer: B
Explanation:
IPsec authenticates and encrypts IP traffic, providing secure communication between corporate sites over the local or wide area network.
NEW QUESTION 998
A security analyst identifies an incident in the network. Which of the following incident response activities would the security analyst perform next?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
Answer: A
Explanation:
After identifying (detecting) an incident, the next step is containment, which aims to limit the spread and impact of the threat before proceeding to eradication or recovery.
NEW QUESTION 999
An administrator discovers a cross-site scripting vulnerability on a company website. Which of the following will most likely remediate the issue?
A. Input validation.
B. NGFW.
C. Vulnerability scan.
D. WAF.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Input validation ensures that user-supplied data is properly sanitized before processing or displaying, effectively preventing cross-site scripting attacks.
NEW QUESTION 1000
A service provider wants a cost-effective way to rapidly expand from providing internet links to managing them. Which of the following methods will allow the service provider to best scale its services while maintaining performance consistency?
A. Escalation support.
B. Increased workforce.
C. Baseline enforcement.
D. Technical debt.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Baseline enforcement ensures consistent performance and security standards across managed services, allowing the provider to scale operations cost-effectively without sacrificing quality.
NEW QUESTION 1001
Which of the following control types describes an alert from a SIEM tool?
A. Preventive
B. Corrective
C. Compensating
D. Detective
Answer: D
Explanation:
A SIEM alert is a detective control because it identifies and reports suspicious or malicious activity after it occurs, enabling further investigation and response.
NEW QUESTION 1002
Which of the following attacks primarily targets insecure networks?
A. Evil twin.
B. Impersonation.
C. Watering hole.
D. Pretexting.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An evil twin attack sets up a rogue wireless access point that mimics a legitimate one, targeting insecure or poorly secured networks to capture user data.
NEW QUESTION 1003
A penetration testing report indicated that an organization should implement controls related to database input validation. Which of the following best identifies the type of vulnerability that was likely discovered during the test?
A. XSS.
B. Command injection.
C. Buffer overflow.
D. SQLi.
Answer: D
Explanation:
SQL injection (SQLi) exploits improper or missing input validation in database queries, allowing attackers to manipulate SQL commands and access or modify database content.
NEW QUESTION 1004
Which of the following activities would involve members of the incident response team and other stakeholders simulating an event?
A. Lessons learned.
B. Digital forensics.
C. Tabletop exercise.
D. Root cause analysis.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a simulated event in which the incident response team and other stakeholders walk through their roles and decision-making processes to evaluate readiness and improve response plans.
NEW QUESTION 1005
Which of the following data classifications best applies when data is intended for internal organizational use or with commercial partners?
A. Public
B. Restricted
C. Confidential
D. Sensitive
Answer: C
Explanation:
Confidential data is intended for internal organizational use or for sharing with trusted commercial partners, requiring protection from unauthorized disclosure.
NEW QUESTION 1006
Which of the following technologies can achieve microsegmentation?
A. Next-generation firewalls.
B. Software-defined networking.
C. Embedded systems.
D. Air-gapped.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Software-defined networking (SDN) enables microsegmentation by allowing fine-grained, software-based control over network traffic flows, isolating workloads and minimizing attack surfaces.
NEW QUESTION 1007
Which of the following metrics impacts the backup schedule as part of the BIA?
A. RTO
B. RPO
C. MTTR
D. MTBF
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss in terms of time, directly influencing how frequently backups must be performed.
NEW QUESTION 1008
A customer reports that software the customer downloaded from a public website has malware in it. However, the company that created the software denies any malware in its software at delivery time. Which of the following techniques will address this concern?
A. Secure storage.
B. Static code analysis.
C. Input validation.
D. Code signing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Code signing uses digital certificates to verify the authenticity and integrity of software, ensuring it has not been tampered with after being created and delivered by the vendor.
NEW QUESTION 1009
After completing an annual external penetration test, a company receives the following guidance:
– Decommission two unused web servers currently exposed to the internet.
– Close 18 open and unused ports found on their existing production web servers.
– Remove company email addresses and contact info from public domain registration records.
Which of the following security practices best describes these recommendations?
A. Attack surface reduction.
B. Vulnerability assessment.
C. Tabletop exercise.
D. Business impact analysis.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Attack surface reduction involves minimizing the number of exploitable points, such as unused servers, open ports, and publicly exposed contact information, that attackers could target.
NEW QUESTION 1010
Which of the following receives logs from various devices and services, and then presents alerts?
A. SIEM
B. SCADA
C. SNMP
D. SCAP
Answer: A
Explanation:
A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system collects logs from multiple sources, correlates the data, and generates alerts for suspicious or malicious activity.
NEW QUESTION 1011
A security analyst investigates logs and notices similar data types are being sent to IP addresses with a bad reputation. Which of the following attack types does this best describe?
A. Logic bomb.
B. Worm.
C. Spyware.
D. Keylogger.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spyware covertly collects and transmits data to external servers, often to IP addresses with known bad reputations, matching the described behavior in the logs.
NEW QUESTION 1012
Which of the following describes a situation where a user is authorized before being authenticated?
A. Privilege escalation.
B. Race condition.
C. Tailgating.
D. Impersonation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Privilege escalation can occur if authorization is granted without proper authentication, allowing a user to gain higher-level access than intended.
NEW QUESTION 1013
An employee decides to take malicious action against an organization after being passed over for a promotion. Which of the following threats does the employee now represent?
A. Insider threat.
B. Nation-state.
C. Shadow IT.
D. Hacktivist.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An insider threat involves a person within the organization, such as an employee, who uses their access for malicious purposes, often due to personal grievances or dissatisfaction.
NEW QUESTION 1014
At the start of a penetration test, the tester checks OSINT resources for information about the client environment. Which of the following types of reconnaissance is the tester performing?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Offensive
D. Defensive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information from publicly available sources, such as OSINT resources, without directly interacting with the target environment.
NEW QUESTION 1015
An administrator is estimating the cost associated with an attack that could result in the replacement of a physical server. Which of the following processes is the administrator performing?
A. Quantitative risk analysis.
B. Disaster recovery test.
C. Physical security controls.
D. Threat modeling.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis assigns a monetary value to potential losses, such as the cost of replacing a physical server after an attack.
NEW QUESTION 1016
A user’s system became infected when malware was downloaded and extracted. The malware is now active in the computer’s volatile storage. Which of the following best describes the technique leveraged by the malware?
A. Race condition.
B. Zero-day exploit.
C. Buffer overflow.
D. Memory injection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Memory injection refers to a technique where malware is loaded directly into the system’s volatile memory (RAM) to execute malicious code without writing files to disk, making detection and persistence more difficult. This matches the scenario where the malware is now active in the computer’s volatile storage.
NEW QUESTION 1017
A few weeks after deploying additional email servers, a company begins to receive complaints from employees that messages they send are going into their recipients’ spam folders. Which of the following needs to be updated in order to resolve this issue?
A. CNAME
B. SMTP
C. DLP
D. SPF
Answer: D
Explanation:
An SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record needs to be updated to include the new email servers, allowing recipient systems to verify the legitimacy of the sending servers and prevent outgoing emails from being marked as spam.
NEW QUESTION 1018
Which of the following will harden access to a new database system? (Choose two.)
A. Jump server.
B. NIDS.
C. Monitoring.
D. Proxy server.
E. Host-based firewall.
F. WAF.
Answer: AE
Explanation:
A jump server restricts and controls administrative access to the database system, reducing the attack surface. A host-based firewall limits network connections directly to the database server, preventing unauthorized access and hardening the system.
NEW QUESTION 1019
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