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NEW QUESTION 501
The Chief Information Security Officer wants the same level of security to be present whether a remote worker logs in at home or at a coffee shop. Which of the following should be recommended as a starting point?
A.   Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures.
B.   Passwordless authentication.
C.   Standard-issue laptops.
D.   Serverless workloads.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures (VDIs) are the most suitable choice to ensure consistent security across different locations. Non-persistent VDIs revert to their original state after a session, reducing the risk of data leakage or malware persistence. These systems are centrally managed, ensuring uniform security policies regardless of the user’s location.
NEW QUESTION 502
Which of the following is the best use of automation in cybersecurity?
A.   Ensure faster incident detection, analysis, and response.
B.   Eliminate configuration errors when implementing new hardware.
C.   Lower costs by reducing the number of necessary staff.
D.   Reduce the time for internal user access requests.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation in cybersecurity is best utilized to improve the speed and accuracy of incident detection, analysis, and response. Tools like SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) streamline workflows, allowing analysts to focus on more complex tasks while reducing response times. This ensures quicker containment and mitigation of threats.
NEW QUESTION 503
Which of the following is the appropriate phase in the incident response process to perform a vulnerability scan to determine the effectiveness of corrective actions?
A.   Lessons learned.
B.   Reporting.
C.   Recovery.
D.   Root cause analysis.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Performing a vulnerability scan during the recovery phase ensures that corrective actions, such as patches or configuration changes, have effectively addressed the vulnerabilities exploited during the incident. This step validates the system’s security before fully restoring operations.
NEW QUESTION 504
Which of the following risk management decisions should be considered after evaluating all other options?
A.   Transfer
B.   Acceptance
C.   Mitigation
D.   Avoidance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk acceptance is the decision to accept the risk’s consequences when mitigation, transfer, or avoidance are not feasible or cost-effective. It is chosen when the residual risk aligns with the organization’s risk appetite. This step occurs after thoroughly assessing other options.
NEW QUESTION 505
An analyst is imaging a hard drive that was obtained from the system of an employee who is suspected of going rogue. The analyst notes that the initial hash of the evidence drive does not match the resultant hash of the imaged copy. Which of the following best describes the reason for the conflicting investigative findings?
A.   Chain of custody was not maintained for the evidence drive.
B.   Legal authorization was not obtained prior to seizing the evidence drive.
C.   Data integrity of the imaged drive could not be verified.
D.   Evidence drive imaging was performed without a write blocker.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If a write blocker was not used, or if it was improperly configured, the original evidence drive may have been altered when connected for imaging.
NEW QUESTION 506
A corporation wants to implement an agent-based endpoint solution to help:
– Flag various threats.
– Review vulnerability feeds.
– Aggregate data.
– Provide real-time metrics by using scripting languages.
Which of the following tools should the corporation implement to reach this goal?
A.   DLP
B.   Heuristics
C.   SOAR
D.   NAC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) solutions allow organizations to integrate security tools, automate response actions, and aggregate threat intelligence. This matches the organization’s goal of threat detection, real-time analysis, and data aggregation.
NEW QUESTION 507
An auditor is reviewing an evidence log associated with a cyber crime. The auditor notices that a gap exists between individuals who were responsible for holding onto and transferring the evidence between individuals responsible for the investigation. Which of the following best describes the evidence handling process that was not property followed?
A.   Validating data integrity.
B.   Preservation.
C.   Legal hold.
D.   Chain of custody.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The chain of custody is a documented history that tracks how evidence is handled, collected, transported, and preserved at every stage of the forensic investigation. If a gap exists in the record of who transferred or accessed the evidence, it could call into question the integrity and admissibility of the evidence.
NEW QUESTION 508
A company classifies security groups by risk level. Any group with a high-risk classification requires multiple levels of approval for member or owner changes. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation is the company utilizing?
A.   Organizational governance.
B.   MOU.
C.   SLA.
D.   Business process interruption.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This scenario describes a strict governance policy requiring multiple approvals for high-risk security group changes. Organizational governance refers to policies that enforce security controls and approval workflows.
NEW QUESTION 509
A security analyst is improving an organization’s vulnerability management program. The analyst cross-checks the current reports with the system’s infrastructure teams, but the reports do not accurately reflect the current patching levels. Which of the following will most likely correct the report errors?
A.   Updating the engine of the vulnerability scanning tool.
B.   Installing patches through a centralized system.
C.   Configuring vulnerability scans to be credentialed.
D.   Resetting the scanning tool’s plug-ins to default.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Credentialed vulnerability scans allow the scanner to log into systems and retrieve accurate information about installed patches and configurations. If the reports do not reflect current patching levels, it is likely that the scan is being performed without credentials, leading to incomplete or inaccurate results.
NEW QUESTION 510
A system that provides the user interface for a critical server has potentially been corrupted by malware. Which of the following is the best recommendation to ensure business continuity?
A.   System isolation.
B.   Reimaging.
C.   Malware removal.
D.   Vulnerability scanning.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A system isolation stops malware from spreading, but it doesn’t restore the system. This is an initial containment step, not a business continuity solution. Reimaging, because is the most reliable way to restore a compromised system to a clean state.
NEW QUESTION 511
An analyst is trying to capture anomalous traffic from a compromised host. Which of the following are the best tools for achieving this objective? (Choose two.)
A.   tcpdump
B.   SIEM
C.   Vulnerability scanner
D.   Wireshark
E.   Nmap
F.   SOAR
Answer: AD
Explanation:
To capture and analyze network traffic, the two best tools are:
– tcpdump: A command-line packet capture tool used for network traffic analysis.
– Wireshark: A GUI-based network packet analysis tool that provides deep inspection capabilities.
NEW QUESTION 512
A SOC manager reviews metrics from the last four weeks to investigate a recurring availability issue. The manager finds similar events correlating to the times of the reported issues. Which of the following methods would the manager most likely use to resolve the issue?
A.   Vulnerability assessment.
B.   Root cause analysis.
C.   Recurrence reports.
D.   Lessons learned.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Root Cause Analysis (RCA) is the best approach to identify and resolve the underlying cause of recurring incidents. It involves a systematic investigation of logs, configurations, and operational data to pinpoint the reason behind persistent security issues.
NEW QUESTION 513
A security analyst must assist the IT department with creating a phased plan for vulnerability patching that meets established SLAs. Which of the following vulnerability management elements will best assist with prioritizing a successful plan?
A.   Affected hosts.
B.   Risk score.
C.   Mitigation strategy.
D.   Annual recurrence.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk scoring is the best method for prioritizing patching, as it considers factors like CVSS severity, exploitability, asset criticality, and business impact.
NEW QUESTION 514
A Chief Information Security Officer has requested a dashboard to share critical vulnerability management goals with company leadership. Which of the following would be the best to include in the dashboard?
A.   KPI
B.   MOU
C.   SLO
D.   SLA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) track the effectiveness of a security program, providing measurable insights into vulnerability detection, patching efficiency, and risk reduction. This makes KPIs ideal for executive dashboards.
NEW QUESTION 515
Numerous emails were sent to a company’s customer distribution list. The customers reported that the emails contained a suspicious link. The company’s SOC determined the links were malicious. Which of the following is the best way to decrease these emails?
A.   DMARC
B.   DKIM
C.   SPF
D.   SMTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) helps organizations prevent email spoofing and phishing by enforcing policies based on SPF and DKIM.
NEW QUESTION 516
A security analyst is conducting a vulnerability assessment of a company’s online store. The analyst discovers a critical vulnerability in the payment processing system that could be exploited, allowing attackers to steal customer payment information. Which of the following should the analyst do next?
A.   Leave the vulnerability unpatched until the next scheduled maintenance window to avoid potential disruption to business.
B.   Perform a risk assessment to evaluate the potential impact of the vulnerability and determine whether additional security measures are needed.
C.   Ignore the vulnerability since the company recently passed a payment system compliance audit.
D.   Patch the vulnerability as soon as possible to ensure customer payment information is secure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Discovering a critical vulnerability in the payment processing system poses an immediate risk to customer payment information. Promptly patching such vulnerabilities is essential to protect sensitive data and maintain trust. Delaying remediation, even until the next maintenance window, leaves the system exposed to potential exploits.
NEW QUESTION 517
A company was able to reduce triage time by focusing on historical trend analysis. The business partnered with the security team to achieve a 50% reduction in phishing attempts year over year. Which of the following action plans led to this reduced triage time?
A.   Patching.
B.   Configuration management.
C.   Awareness, education, and training.
D.   Threat modeling.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phishing attacks are best mitigated through user education and training. The 50% reduction in phishing attempts suggests a strong awareness program that improved employee vigilance.
NEW QUESTION 518
Several incidents have occurred with a legacy web application that has had little development work completed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the incidents?
A.   Misconfigured web application firewall.
B.   Data integrity failure.
C.   Outdated libraries.
D.   Insufficient logging.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Outdated libraries in a legacy web application introduce security vulnerabilities, as they lack modern patches and contain known exploits.
NEW QUESTION 519
An incident response team is assessing attack vectors of malware that is encrypting data with ransomware. There are no indications of a network-based intrusion. Which of the following is the most likely root cause of the incident?
A.   USB drop.
B.   LFI.
C.   Cross-site forgery.
D.   SQL injection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A USB drop attack is a common method for delivering ransomware, where an attacker leaves infected USB drives in strategic locations, tricking employees into plugging them into corporate devices.
NEW QUESTION 520
A security analyst has identified outgoing network traffic leaving the enterprise at odd times. The traffic appears to pivot across network segments and target domain servers. The traffic is then routed to a geographic location to which the company has no association. Which of the following best describes this type of threat?
A.   Hacktivist.
B.   Zombie.
C.   Insider threat.
D.   Nation-state actor.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The described behavior (pivoting across network segments, targeting domain servers, and exfiltrating data to an unknown location) is characteristic of an advanced persistent threat (APT), often linked to nation-state actors.
NEW QUESTION 521
Based on an internal assessment, a vulnerability management team wants to proactively identify risks to the infrastructure prior to production deployments. Which of the following best supports this approach?
A.   Threat modeling.
B.   Penetration testing.
C.   Bug bounty.
D.   SDLC training.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Threat modeling is a proactive approach used to identify, analyze, and mitigate potential threats before they impact production systems. It is especially useful in early development stages to anticipate vulnerabilities and attack paths.
NEW QUESTION 522
Which of the following best explains the importance of utilizing an incident response playbook?
A.   It prioritizes the business-critical assets for data recovery.
B.   It establishes actions to execute when inputs trigger an event.
C.   It documents the organization asset management and configuration.
D.   It defines how many disaster recovery sites should be staged.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident response playbooks provide a structured step-by-step guide for handling security incidents. They define actions to take when specific threat indicators or events occur, ensuring a coordinated and consistent response.
NEW QUESTION 523
Which of the following best describe the external requirements that are imposed for incident management communication? (Choose two.)
A.   Law enforcement involvement.
B.   Compliance with regulatory requirements.
C.   Transparency to stockholders.
D.   Defined SLAs regarding services.
E.   Industry advocacy group participation.
F.   Framework guidelines.
Answer: BF
Explanation:
– Compliance with regulatory requirements: Many industries are governed by regulations (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA) that impose specific requirements for incident management communication, including timely reporting and disclosure of security incidents.
– Framework guidelines: Incident management processes often follow established frameworks (e.g., NIST, ISO 27001) that provide guidelines for communication during incidents, ensuring standardized and effective communication.
NEW QUESTION 524
A security analyst observes a high volume of SYN flags from an unexpected source toward a web application server within one hour. The traffic is not flagging for any exploit signatures. Which of the following scenarios best describes this activity?
A.   A legitimate connection is continuously attempting to establish a connection with a downed web server.
B.   A script kiddie is attempting to execute a DDoS through a ping flood attack.
C.   An attacker is executing reconnaissance activities by mapping which ports are open and closed.
D.   A web exploit attempt is likely occurring and the security analyst is not seeing it.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A high volume of SYN flags without completing the three-way TCP handshake (SYN-ACK and ACK) is characteristic of reconnaissance activities, such as a TCP SYN scan. Attackers use SYN scans to map open and closed ports on a target system without fully establishing connections. The lack of exploit signatures in the traffic supports the conclusion that this is reconnaissance rather than an active exploitation attempt.
NEW QUESTION 525
Which of the following features is a key component of Zero Trust architecture?
A.   Single strong source of user identity.
B.   Implementation of IT governance.
C.   Business continuity plan.
D.   Quality assurance.
E.   Internal auditing process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A key component of Zero Trust architecture is having a strong and centralized source of user identity to ensure strict authentication and authorization. Zero Trust operates on the principle of “never trust, always verify”, where access to resources is continuously evaluated based on the user’s identity, role, and context, regardless of whether the user is inside or outside the network.
NEW QUESTION 526
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