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NEW QUESTION 401
Several users report poor performance when accessing shared drives on a file server named Filed. While troubleshooting the issue, the network administrator swaps the Ethernet connections between File01 and another server named File02. Shortly thereafter, users report issues with File02, but File01 is no longer an issue. Which of the following is most likely impacting performance?
A.   Port security.
B.   Speed/duplex mismatch.
C.   PoE power budget reduction.
D.   Keep-alive beacon failure.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A speed/duplex mismatch on the switch port leads to collisions and poor throughput, and when the cables were swapped the problem moved with the affected port.
NEW QUESTION 402
A network technician is requesting a fiber patch cord with a connector that is round and twists to install. Which of the following is the proper name of this connector type?
A.   ST
B.   BNC
C.   SC
D.   LC
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ST (Straight Tip) connector uses a round, bayonet-style twist lock mechanism for installation.
NEW QUESTION 403
A data center administrator is evaluating the use of jumbo frames within a storage environment. Which of the following describes the best reason to use jumbo frames in the storage environment?
A.   To reduce device overhead.
B.   To report on the current root switch in the STP.
C.   To improve routing convergence.
D.   To increase drive throughput.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Jumbo frames carry more data per packet, reducing the total number of frames and associated processing overhead on devices, which boosts efficiency in a storage environment.
NEW QUESTION 404
A network administrator needs to efficiently deploy 200 systems using RFC1918 addresses. Which of the following networks should the administrator use?
A.   10.10.10.0/8
B.   150.200.1.0/24
C.   192.168.1.0/24
D.   254.169.0.0/24
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 192.168.1.0/24 network falls within the RFC1918 private address space and provides 254 usable addresses, efficiently covering 200 systems.
NEW QUESTION 405
An administrator requests a certificate for the company’s domain name. In order to prove ownership of the domain, the certificate authority asks the administrator to create a specific DNS record. Which of the following record types is required?
A.   SOA
B.   MX
C.   NS
D.   TXT
Answer: D
Explanation:
Certificate authorities use a DNS TXT record to verify domain ownership by checking for a specific token you publish in your DNS.
NEW QUESTION 406
A network administrator is configuring a wireless connection between two warehouses. Which of the following wireless network types would best accomplish this task?
A.   Ad hoc.
B.   Infrastructure.
C.   Point-to-point.
D.   Mesh.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A point-to-point wireless link creates a dedicated bridge between two locations, ideal for connecting separate warehouses.
NEW QUESTION 407
A network engineer is designing an internal network that needs to support both IPv4 and IPv6 routing. Which of the following routing protocols is capable of supporting both IPv4 and IPv6?
A.   OSPFv3
B.   RIPv2
C.   BGP
D.   EIGRP
Answer: D
Explanation:
EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is capable of supporting both IPv4 and IPv6 routing. It is an advanced distance-vector routing protocol that provides fast convergence, scalability, and efficient network utilization.
NEW QUESTION 408
While conducting a network audit, an administrator notices the spanning tree root in VLAN 300 does not match the configuration baseline, which could cause network outages due to spanning tree update failures. Which of the following should the administrator do to restore consistency?
A.   Change the designated port on the misconfigured switch to a root port.
B.   Change the root port to a listening port on the misconfigured switch.
C.   Change the blocked port of the misconfigured switch to a learning port.
D.   Increase the bridge ID/priority on the misconfigured switch.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Raising the bridge priority on the misconfigured switch increases its bridge ID so it no longer wins the root election, restoring the intended root for VLAN 300.
NEW QUESTION 409
A network administrator needs to connect a multimode fiber cable from the MDF to the server room. The administrator connects the cable to Switch 2, but there is no link light. The administrator tests the fiber and finds it does not have any issues. Swapping the connection to Switch 1 in a working port is successful, but the swapped connection does not work on Switch 2. Which of the following should the administrator verify next?
A.   Fiber length.
B.   Transceiver model.
C.   Connector type.
D.   Port speed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Since the cable and connectors work on another switch but won’t link on Switch 2, the likely issue is an incompatible SFP module; you should verify that the transceiver in Switch 2 is the correct multimode model.
NEW QUESTION 410
Which of the following architecture types is most commonly associated with east-west traffic?
A.   Colocated VMs.
B.   Hybrid cloud.
C.   Client-server.
D.   Hub and spoke.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Colocated VMs communicate primarily with each other inside the data center, generating east‑west traffic.
NEW QUESTION 411
A company has been added to an unapproved list because of spam. The network administrator confirmed that a workstation was infected by malware. Which of the following processes did the administrator use to identify the root cause?
A.   Traffic analysis.
B.   Availability monitoring.
C.   Baseline metrics.
D.   Network discovery.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Traffic analysis pinpoints anomalous flows – such as excessive outbound spam – to identify the specific workstation infected with malware.
NEW QUESTION 412
Which of the following actions happen during the first step of the troubleshooting methodology? (Choose two.)
A.   Question the obvious.
B.   Divide and conquer.
C.   Identify symptoms.
D.   Establish a theory.
E.   Use a top-to-bottom approach.
F.   Question users.
Answer: CF
Explanation:
– Identify symptoms: gather and note the specific issues observed.
– Question users: interview affected users to understand what they’re experiencing.
NEW QUESTION 413
Which of the following cable types allows the use of QSFP ports without requiring transceivers?
A.   Multimode.
B.   Twinaxial.
C.   RG11.
D.   Category 6.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Twinaxial direct‑attach copper cables include integrated transceivers, allowing them to plug directly into QSFP ports without separate modules.
NEW QUESTION 414
A network administrator determines that some switch ports have more errors present than expected. The administrator traces the cabling associated with these ports. Which of the following would most likely be causing the errors?
A.   Shielded conduit.
B.   Plenum spaces.
C.   Voltage transformers.
D.   Hydraulic lifts.
Answer: C
Explanation:
High electromagnetic fields around voltage transformers induce interference on copper cables, leading to increased errors.
NEW QUESTION 415
A network administrator is troubleshooting an issue with a user’s IP address. Which of the following layers of the OSI model should be considered?
A.   Data link.
B.   Network.
C.   Session.
D.   Presentation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
IP addressing and routing are Layer 3 functions in the OSI model, so network‑layer issues should be considered.
NEW QUESTION 416
Which of the following will most likely allow a network administrator to work with current data after a disaster?
A.   Review backup tapes.
B.   Recover from cloud storage.
C.   Fail over to a hot site.
D.   Restore from a snapshot.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hot site provides a fully configured, continuously replicated environment so you can immediately switch operations and access up-to-date data after a disaster.
NEW QUESTION 417
A network technician is attempting to map networking devices. When logged in to the local switch, the technician uses LLDP and discovers only those devices that are connected directly to the switch. Which of the following should the technician perform to discover all the networking devices?
A.   Reconfigure the management IP addresses of the networking devices on the same subnet.
B.   Enable Spanning Tree Protocol to allow the switches on the network to be discovered.
C.   Log in to each of the connected networking devices and perform the process again.
D.   Upgrade the OS on the networking devices to the current version of LLDP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
LLDP only reports directly connected neighbors; to map the entire network you need to log in to each discovered device and run LLDP there to find further connections.
NEW QUESTION 418
Which of the following can be used when a server at a remote site is physically unreachable?
A.   OOB management.
B.   Crash cart.
C.   Jump box.
D.   Console.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Out-of-band management provides a separate management channel (often via a dedicated network or modem) that lets you access and control a server even if the primary network or physical access is unavailable.
NEW QUESTION 419
Which of the following source control features allows an administrator to test a new configuration without changing the primary configuration?
A.   Central repository.
B.   Conflict identification.
C.   Branching.
D.   Version control.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Branching creates an isolated copy of the configuration so you can test changes without affecting the primary configuration.
NEW QUESTION 420
A network engineer needs to change, update, and control APs remotely, with real-time visibility over HTTPS. Which of the following will best allow these actions?
A.   Web interface.
B.   Command line.
C.   SNMP console.
D.   API gateway.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An API gateway exposes a RESTful (or similar) interface over HTTPS, allowing clients to programmatically push configuration changes, retrieve status, and control access points in real time. While a web interface also uses HTTPS, it’s typically user-interactive (browser-based) rather than scriptable or easily automatable. A command-line interface might be available via SSH, but that’s not over HTTPS and is less suited to real-time web integration. SNMP is for monitoring and limited configuration but is not natively tunneled over HTTPS and doesn’t provide the same modern programmability.
NEW QUESTION 421
Which of the following is a location where a plenum cable is recommended?
A.   Frequently traveled areas.
B.   Outdoor environments.
C.   Inside conduits.
D.   Airspaces above a ceiling.
Answer: D
Explanation:
“Plenum” refers to the air-handling spaces in buildings – typically the space above a dropped ceiling or below a raised floor used for air circulation. In these areas, regulations require cables with low-smoke, low-toxicity jacketing, to reduce toxic fumes if there’s a fire. Frequently traveled areas may need more rugged or protected cabling but not specifically plenum-rated. Outdoor environments demand weatherproof or UV-resistant cables. Inside conduits often allow regular PVC-jacketed cable because the conduit provides fire containment.
NEW QUESTION 422
Application software systems can no longer receive updates and security patches, and continuing to use the application software might expose the system to attacks. Which of the following best describes this scenario?
A.   SLA
B.   Licensing
C.   SIEM
D.   EOL
Answer: D
Explanation:
End of life indicates the vendor no longer provides updates or security patches, leaving the software vulnerable.
NEW QUESTION 423
Which of the following technologies uses a VIP to provide gateway redundancy between two routers?
A.   LACP
B.   PAT
C.   FHRP
D.   BGP
Answer: C
Explanation:
First Hop Redundancy Protocols (such as HSRP or VRRP) use a virtual IP address shared between routers to provide a redundant gateway.
NEW QUESTION 424
Which of the following is the best way to reduce the likelihood of electrostatic discharge?
A.   Uninterruptable power supply.
B.   Surge protector.
C.   Power distribution units.
D.   Temperature and humidity control.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Proper temperature and humidity control increases ambient moisture, reducing static buildup and lowering the risk of electrostatic discharge.
NEW QUESTION 425
Several unauthorized APs near the corporate headquarters are broadcasting similar SSIDs. Which of the following types of attacks is being described?
A.   Evil twin.
B.   Wi-Fi jamming.
C.   On-path.
D.   Wardriving.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An evil twin attack involves rogue access points broadcasting a network name identical or similar to a legitimate SSID to trick users into connecting.
NEW QUESTION 426
A systems administrator installs multiple web servers and intends to use the First Hop Redundancy Protocol to control routing to the servers. Which of the following types of IP addresses should the administrator use to support this routing approach?
A.   Virtual
B.   Gateway
C.   Static
D.   Dynamic
Answer: A
Explanation:
First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRPs) like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP use a virtual IP address shared among a group of routers to provide high availability. Hosts on the network use this virtual IP as their default gateway, ensuring continuous access even if the primary router fails. Gateway is a role, not an address type. Static and Dynamic refer to how IPs are assigned, not their redundancy purpose.
NEW QUESTION 427
A network administrator is setting up a firewall to protect the organization’s network from external threats. Which of the following should the administrator consider first when configuring the firewall?
A.   Required ports, protocols, and services.
B.   Inclusion of a deny all rule.
C.   VPN access.
D.   Outbound access originating from customer-facing servers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before creating any rules, you must identify which ports, protocols, and services need to be allowed so the firewall can be configured to permit legitimate traffic and block everything else.
NEW QUESTION 428
A company is installing network cables above the ceiling tiles. The cables must be fire rated. Which of the following cable types should the company use?
A.   Coaxial
B.   Plenum
C.   Crossover
D.   STP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Plenum-rated cable is fire‑rated and produces low smoke, making it suitable for installation in ceiling plenums.
NEW QUESTION 429
A VoIP phone powers up, but it is unable to receive or place calls. After connecting to another switchport, the issue is resolved. Which of the following was most likely the issue with the previous port?
A.   The port had a half-duplex configuration.
B.   The port was in an error-disabled state.
C.   The port had an incorrect VLAN assignment.
D.   The port exceeded its PoE budget.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The phone received power but was on the wrong VLAN, preventing it from reaching the voice‑VLAN DHCP/TFTP services needed to register and place calls.
NEW QUESTION 430
Which of the following technologies is most appropriate for a business that requires high-speed access to frequently used web content, such as images and videos?
A.   CDN
B.   SAN
C.   Firewall
D.   Switch
Answer: A
Explanation:
A CDN caches and serves static web content from edge locations close to users, reducing latency and ensuring high‑speed access to images and videos.
NEW QUESTION 431
Which of the following should be included in an SLA?
A.   Patches and bug fixes.
B.   Licensing.
C.   Inventory management.
D.   Stakeholders.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SLAs specify the services and support provided – such as scheduled patching and bug‑fix releases – along with performance and availability commitments.
NEW QUESTION 432
A network technician is installing a new switch that does not support STP at the access layer of a network. The technician wants a redundant connection to the distribution switch. Which of the following should the technician use?
A.   Link aggregation.
B.   Subinterfaces.
C.   Switch virtual interfaces.
D.   Half-duplex connections.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Link aggregation bundles multiple physical ports into one logical link, providing fault tolerance and increased bandwidth without creating spanning‑tree loops on an STP‑unsupported switch.
NEW QUESTION 433
A newly opened retail shop uses a combination of new tablets, PCs, printers, and legacy card readers. Which of the following wireless encryption types is the most secure and compatible?
A.   WPA3.
B.   WPA2.
C.   WPA2 / WPA3 mixed mode.
D.   WPA / WPA2 mixed mode.
Answer: C
Explanation:
WPA2/WPA3 mixed mode lets devices that support WPA3 use its stronger encryption while still allowing legacy devices that only support WPA2 to connect, balancing security with compatibility.
NEW QUESTION 434
A technician is implementing a new SD-WAN device with a default configuration. The technician receives a URL via email and connects the new device to the internet to complete the installation. Which of the following is this an example of?
A.   Voice VLAN.
B.   Native VLAN.
C.   Data VLAN.
D.   Trunk port.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The SD-WAN device used the default data VLAN (the unmarked user-data network) to reach the internet and pull its configuration.
NEW QUESTION 435
Which of the following is the part of a DR plan that identifies the critical systems that should be recovered first after an incident?
A.   RTO
B.   SLA
C.   MTBF
D.   SIEM
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Recovery Time Objective specifies how quickly each critical system must be back online after an incident, effectively ranking them so those with the shortest RTOs are recovered first.
NEW QUESTION 436
Which of the following would allow a network administrator to remotely access a secure subnet from a shared, secure workstation?
A.   Enable SSH through the firewall.
B.   Dial into an in-band modem.
C.   Connect through a jump host.
D.   Configure a site-to-site VPN.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A jump host (bastion) provides a controlled intermediary that administrators use to securely access a protected subnet from a shared workstation.
NEW QUESTION 437
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