[30-Jan-2024] New Security+ SY0-701 Dumps with VCE and PDF from PassLeader (New Questions)

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Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII?

A.    SCAP
B.    Net Flow
C.    Antivirus
D.    DLP

Answer: D
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer’s PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets.

Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?

A.    Compensating control.
B.    Network segmentation.
C.    Transfer of risk.
D.    SNMP traps.

Answer: A
A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers.

A company is planning to set up a SIEM system and assign an analyst to review the logs on a weekly basis. Which of the following types of controls is the company setting up?

A.    Corrective
B.    Preventive
C.    Detective
D.    Deterrent

Answer: C
A detective control is a type of control that monitors and analyzes the events and activities in a system or a network, and alerts or reports when an incident or a violation occurs. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is a tool that collects, correlates, and analyzes the logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, or applications, and provides a centralized view of the security status and incidents. An analyst who reviews the logs on a weekly basis can identify and investigate any anomalies, trends, or patterns that indicate a potential threat or a breach. A detective control can help the company to respond quickly and effectively to the incidents, and to improve its security posture and resilience.

Which of the following is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD program?

A.    End of life.
B.    Buffer overflow.
C.    VM escape.
D.    Jailbreaking.

Answer: D
Jailbreaking is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) program. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the manufacturer’s or the carrier’s restrictions on a device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, to gain root access and install unauthorized or custom software. Jailbreaking can compromise the security of the device and the data stored on it, as well as expose it to malware, viruses, or hacking. Jailbreaking can also violate the warranty and the terms of service of the device, and make it incompatible with the company’s security policies and standards. Therefore, a company setting up a BYOD program should prohibit jailbreaking and enforce device compliance and encryption.

Which of the following vulnerabilities is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address?

A.    VM escape.
B.    SQL injection.
C.    Buffer overflow.
D.    Race condition.

Answer: C
A buffer overflow is a vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. A register is a small storage area in the CPU that holds temporary data or instructions. An attacker can exploit a buffer overflow to overwrite a register with a malicious address that points to a shellcode, which is a piece of code that gives the attacker control over the system. By doing so, the attacker can bypass the normal execution flow of the application and execute arbitrary commands.

Which of the following describes the process of concealing code or text inside a graphical image?

A.    Symmetric encryption.
B.    Hashing.
C.    Data masking.
D.    Steganography.

Answer: D
Steganography is the process of hiding information within another medium, such as an image, audio, video, or text file. The hidden information is not visible or noticeable to the casual observer, and can only be extracted by using a specific technique or key. Steganography can be used for various purposes, such as concealing secret messages, watermarking, or evading detection by antivirus software.

A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types of security incidents. Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?

A.    Set the maximum data retention policy.
B.    Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network.
C.    Review the documents’ data classification policy.
D.    Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.

Answer: D
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.

Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Choose two.)

A.    Ease of recovery.
B.    Ability to patch.
C.    Physical isolation.
D.    Responsiveness.
E.    Attack surface.
F.    Extensible authentication.

Answer: AE
A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of critical services and applications. To achieve this goal, a high-availability network must consider two important factors: ease of recovery and attack surface. Ease of recovery refers to the ability of a network to quickly restore normal functionality after a failure, disruption, or disaster. A high-availability network should have mechanisms such as redundancy, failover, backup, and restore to ensure that any single point of failure does not cause a complete network outage. A high-availability network should also have procedures and policies for incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity to minimize the impact of any network issue on the organization’s operations and reputation. Attack surface refers to the exposure of a network to potential threats and vulnerabilities. A high- availability network should have measures such as encryption, authentication, authorization, firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, and patch management to protect the network from unauthorized access, data breaches, malware, denial-of-service attacks, and other cyberattacks. A high-availability network should also have processes and tools for risk assessment, threat intelligence, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing to identify and mitigate any weaknesses or gaps in the network security.

A healthcare organization wants to provide a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies. Which of the following is the most important consideration during development?

A.    Scalability.
B.    Availability.
C.    Cost.
D.    Ease of deployment.

Answer: B
Explanation:Availability is the ability of a system or service to be accessible and usable when needed. For a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies, availability is the most important consideration during development, because any downtime or delay could have serious consequences for the health and safety of the users. The web application should be designed to handle high traffic, prevent denial-of-service attacks, and have backup and recovery plans in case of failures.

Which of the following are cases in which an engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device? (Choose two.)

A.    The device has been moved from a production environment to a test environment.
B.    The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
C.    The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network.
D.    The device is moved to a different location in the enterprise.
E.    The device’s encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
F.    The device is unable to receive authorized updates.

Answer: BE
Option B: The device is configured to use cleartext passwords. This is a major security vulnerability and poses a significant risk of unauthorized access. Devices using cleartext passwords should be decommissioned and replaced with devices using secure authentication methods.
Option E: The device’s encryption level cannot meet organizational standards. If the device cannot encrypt data to the required level, it compromises the confidentiality of sensitive information and should be decommissioned. Organizational security policies should dictate the minimum acceptable encryption level for network devices.

A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes. Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?

A.    SPF
B.    GPO
C.    NAC
D.    FIM

Answer: D
FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data.

Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Choose two.)

A.    Fencing.
B.    Video surveillance.
C.    Badge access.
D.    Access control vestibule.
E.    Sign-in sheet.
F.    Sensor.

Answer: CD
Badge access and access control vestibule are two of the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility. Badge access requires the personnel to present a valid and authenticated badge to a reader or scanner that grants or denies access based on predefined rules and permissions. Access control vestibule is a physical security measure that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure area. The personnel must enter the vestibule and wait for the first door to close and lock before the second door can be opened. This prevents tailgating or piggybacking by unauthorized individuals.

Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?

A.    SOW
B.    SLA
C.    MOA
D.    MOU

Answer: B
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.

A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?

A.    Cross-site scripting.
B.    Buffer overflow.
C.    Jailbreaking.
D.    Side loading.

Answer: C
Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network.

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to explicitly raise awareness about the increase of ransomware-as-a-service in a report to the management team. Which of the following best describes the threat actor in the CISO’s report?

A.    Insider threat.
B.    Hacktivist.
C.    Nation-state.
D.    Organized crime.

Answer: D
Ransomware-as-a-service is a type of cybercrime where hackers sell or rent ransomware tools or services to other criminals who use them to launch attacks and extort money from victims. This is a typical example of organized crime, which is a group of criminals who work together to conduct illegal activities for profit. Organized crime is different from other types of threat actors, such as insider threats, hacktivists, or nation-states, who may have different motives, methods, or targets.

A company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will most likely be classified? (Choose two.)

A.    Private.
B.    Confidential.
C.    Public.
D.    Operational.
E.    Urgent.
F.    Restricted.

Answer: BF
Data classification is the process of assigning labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact. Different organizations and sectors may have different data classification schemes, but a common one is the following:
– Public: Data that can be freely disclosed to anyone without any harm or risk. Private: Data that is intended for internal use only and may cause some harm or risk if disclosed.
– Confidential: Data that is intended for authorized use only and may cause significant harm or risk if disclosed.
– Restricted: Data that is intended for very limited use only and may cause severe harm or risk if disclosed.
In this scenario, the company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. This data is likely to be classified as confidential and restricted, because it is not meant for public or private use, and it may cause serious damage to national security or public safety if disclosed. The government may also have specific requirements or regulations for handling such data, such as encryption, access control, and auditing.

Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?

A.    Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
B.    Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
C.    Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
D.    Install endpoint management software on all systems.

Answer: D
Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose.

Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?

A.    OCSP
B.    CSR
C.    CA
D.    CRC

Answer: A
OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA).

Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?

A.    RTOS
B.    Containers
C.    Embedded Systems

Answer: B
Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features.

Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?

A.    CVE
B.    CVSS
C.    CIA
D.    CERT

Answer: B
CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that provides a standardized way to assess and communicate the severity and risk of vulnerabilities. CVSS uses a set of metrics and formulas to calculate a numerical score ranging from 0 to 10, where higher scores indicate higher criticality. CVSS can help organizations prioritize remediation efforts and compare vulnerabilities across different systems and vendors. The other options are not used to measure the criticality of a vulnerability, but rather to identify, classify, or report them.

Which of the following is the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network?

A.    Bastion host.
B.    Unsecured Bluetooth.
C.    Unpatched OS.
D.    Removable devices.

Answer: D
An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network.

A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities. The administrator also wants to apply the required access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?

A.    RBAC
B.    ACL
C.    SAML
D.    GPO

Answer: A
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format.

Which of the following should a systems administrator use to ensure an easy deployment of resources within the cloud provider?

A.    Software as a service.
B.    Infrastructure as code.
C.    Internet of Things.
D.    Software-defined networking.

Answer: B
Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of using code and automation to manage and provision cloud resources, such as servers, networks, storage, and applications. IaC allows for easy deployment, scalability, consistency, and repeatability of cloud environments. IaC is also a key component of DevSecOps, which integrates security into the development and operations processes.

During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranet account. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters, and two special characters. Once the password is created, the company will grant the employee access to other company-owned websites based on the intranet profile. Which of the following access management concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account? (Choose two.)

A.    Federation.
B.    Identity proofing.
C.    Password complexity.
D.    Default password changes.
E.    Password manager.
F.    Open authentication.

Answer: AC
Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user’s credentials and provides them to the requested resources or services without exposing them. Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and uniqueness. Password complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing by making passwords harder to crack or guess.

A security engineer is implementing FDE for all laptops in an organization. Which of the following are the most important for the engineer to consider as part of the planning process? (Choose two.)

A.    Key escrow.
B.    TPM presence.
C.    Digital signatures.
D.    Data tokenization.
E.    Public key management.
F.    Certificate authority linking.

Answer: AB
Key escrow is a method of storing encryption keys in a secure location, such as a trusted third party or a hardware security module (HSM). Key escrow is important for FDE because it allows the recovery of encrypted data in case of lost or forgotten passwords, device theft, or hardware failure. Key escrow also enables authorized access to encrypted data for legal or forensic purposes. TPM presence is a feature of some laptops that have a dedicated chip for storing encryption keys and other security information. TPM presence is important for FDE because it enhances the security and performance of encryption by generating and protecting the keys within the chip, rather than relying on software or external devices. TPM presence also enables features such as secure boot, remote attestation, and device authentication.

Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?

A.    Hacktivist.
B.    Whistleblower.
C.    Organized crime.
D.    Unskilled attacker.

Answer: C
Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption.

A data administrator is configuring authentication for a SaaS application and would like to reduce the number of credentials employees need to maintain. The company prefers to use domain credentials to access new SaaS applications. Which of the following methods would allow this functionality?

A.    SSO
B.    LEAP
C.    MFA
D.    PEAP

Answer: A
SSO stands for single sign-on, which is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple applications or services with one set of credentials. SSO reduces the number of credentials employees need to maintain and simplifies the login process. SSO can also improve security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and credential theft. SSO can be implemented using various protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, OpenID Connect, and Kerberos, that enable the exchange of authentication information between different domains or systems. SSO is commonly used for accessing SaaS applications, such as Office 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, and others, using domain credentials.

An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification. Which of the following social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)

A.    Typosquatting
B.    Phishing
C.    Impersonation
D.    Vishing
E.    Smishing
F.    Misinformation

Answer: CE
Option C: Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.
Option E: Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.

Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated:
“I’m in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email address.”
Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two.)

A.    Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
B.    Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
C.    Issue a general email warning to the company.
D.    Have the CEO change phone numbers.
E.    Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO’s phone.
F.    Implement mobile device management.

Answer: BC
This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money.

An organization is leveraging a VPN between its headquarters and a branch location. Which of the following is the VPN protecting?

A.    Data in use.
B.    Data in transit.
C.    Geographic restrictions.
D.    Data sovereignty.

Answer: B
Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air. Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it.


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