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NEW QUESTION 201
To gather requirements from stakeholders, the project manager sits down with them and allows them to discuss freely. Which a following technique is the project manager utilizing?

A.    Process moving.
B.    Brainstorming.
C.    Interview.
D.    Focus group.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A focus group is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders and facilitating a discussion to elicit their opinions, needs, and expectations about the project. This technique can help to gather requirements from stakeholders in an interactive and collaborative way.

NEW QUESTION 202
Which of the following communication tools would a project manager use to broadcast information without being assured the information will be received?

A.    Telephone
B.    Videoconference
C.    Face-to-face
D.    Email

Answer: D
Explanation:
Email is a communication tool that allows the project manager to send information to one or more recipients without requiring immediate feedback or confirmation of receipt. Email can be used to broadcast information that is not urgent or critical, such as status updates, meeting minutes, or general announcements.

NEW QUESTION 203
Several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff of a major digital transformation protect. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?

A.    Escalate directly to the project sponsor.
B.    Push the kickoff meeting out by one week.
C.    Proceed with the kickoff as planned.
D.    Identity replacements for project stakeholders.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The project sponsor is the person who provides the authority, funding, and support for the project. The project sponsor can also help to influence and engage the key stakeholders who are essential for the success of the project. If several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff meeting, which is an important event to establish the vision, scope, and expectations of the project, the project manager should escalate this issue to the project sponsor and seek their assistance to ensure the participation of the stakeholders.

NEW QUESTION 204
A development team, which is working on a software project demonstrates software functionality 10 project stakeholder a week before the implementation date. Several stakeholders comment that the software does not meet the communicated expectations. Which of the following tools should the project manager use to validate the functionality?

A.    Project status report.
B.    Requirements Traceability Matrix.
C.    Detect log.
D.    Signed project charter.
E.    Work breakdown structure.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 205
A PM is working on a strategy to store records. Which of the following dements must be included in this plan? (Choose two.)

A.    Data management.
B.    Issue management.
C.    Work breakdown structure.
D.    Document management.
E.    Communication management.
F.    Risk management.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
– A strategy to store records must include data management and document management as two essential elements. Data management is the process of ensuring that the data collected, stored, and used by the project is accurate, complete, consistent, secure, and accessible. Data management helps to maintain the quality and integrity of the project data and supports the analysis and reporting of the project outcomes.
– Document management is the process of creating, organizing, storing, retrieving, and disposing of project documents in a systematic and controlled way. Document management helps to ensure that the project documents are available, reliable, usable, and authentic throughout the project life cycle and beyond. Document management also helps to comply with the legal, regulatory, and organizational requirements for records retention and disposition.

NEW QUESTION 206
Two project team members are assigned to set up new work areas and are disagreeing about the placement of hardware and peripherals at the end users’ desks. The requirements do not specify where to place the items, just what is needed in each space. Which of the following should the project manager do to resolve the conflict?

A.    Send out a survey to the potential end users to gather information about the best functional setup for work productivity.
B.    Provide clear instructions based on personal preference and aesthetics for setup of the work areas.
C.    Explain to team members that the placement of the items is not too important, as long as everything is connected and working.
D.    Facilitate a meeting between team members to review the pros and cons of the different configurations so as to encourage an amicable solution.

Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of conflict resolution in project management, which is to use a collaborative or problem-solving approach that seeks a win-win outcome for all parties involved. By facilitating a meeting, the project manager can help the team members communicate effectively, understand each other’s perspectives, and find a mutually acceptable solution that meets the project requirements. This way, the project manager can also maintain team morale and cohesion, and avoid imposing a decision that may cause resentment or dissatisfaction among the team members.

NEW QUESTION 207
A risk management team for a software project decided to outsource the development of a specific portion of a system due to a lack of internal resources. Which of the following risk responses does this demonstrate?

A.    Avoid
B.    Transfer
C.    Accept
D.    Share

Answer: B
Explanation:
Outsourcing the development of a system component due to a lack of internal resources is a risk response strategy known as ‘transfer.’ This approach shifts the risk to a third party who will now be responsible for managing that portion of the project. It is commonly used when an organization does not have the expertise or capacity to handle specific risks internally.

NEW QUESTION 208
During a kickoff call, a project was rejected by the legal department due to the risk of violating new legislation. Which of the following was applied?

A.    Awareness of the local environment.
B.    Awareness of the brand value.
C.    Awareness of the resource constraints.
D.    Awareness of the company’s mission.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Awareness of the local environment refers to the understanding of the external factors that may affect the project, such as legal, regulatory, social, cultural, economic, and environmental aspects. In this case, the legal department applied this awareness to identify the potential risk of violating new legislation and rejected the project accordingly. This shows that the legal department was concerned about the compliance and reputation of the organization and the project in the local context.

NEW QUESTION 209
A project manager queries stakeholders to identify the right communication channel to be used during the project life cycle. After reviewing the responses, the project manager reports that 70% of the stakeholders prefer email communication, and the rest prefer face-to-face communication. The project manager should update the stakeholder register with ____.

A.    the preferred sponsor’s communication channel
B.    the preferred project manager’s communication channel
C.    the preferred reported communication channel
D.    email communication as the preferred communication channel

Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of stakeholder management, which is to identify and document the communication preferences of each stakeholder or stakeholder group. The project manager should update the stakeholder register with the information gathered from the stakeholder analysis, which includes the preferred communication channel for each stakeholder. The preferred reported communication channel reflects the majority preference of the stakeholders, as well as the minority preference of the face-to-face communicators. The project manager should use this information to plan and execute effective communication throughout the project life cycle.

NEW QUESTION 210
A project manager is coordinating multiple teams of six people that will each provide feedback for a new product. The teams are recording their opinions, which may be used to define the final product that is sent to mass production. Which of the following best describes this technique?

A.    Demonstration.
B.    Workshop.
C.    Brainstorming.
D.    Focus group.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A focus group is a technique that involves gathering a group of people who share some characteristics or interests related to a product, service, or issue, and asking them for their opinions, perceptions, or feedback. The project manager acts as a moderator or facilitator who guides the discussion and records the results. A focus group can help to collect information from a representative sample of the target population, explore ideas, identify needs and preferences, and support the completion of larger projects. The other options are not correct because:
– A demonstration is a technique that involves showing the features or capabilities of a product, service, or process to the stakeholders or customers, usually in a live or simulated environment. A demonstration can help to validate the requirements, obtain feedback, and verify the functionality of a deliverable.
– A workshop is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders or experts to work on a specific topic, problem, or issue, usually in a structured and facilitated way. A workshop can help to define the scope, plan the activities, identify the risks, resolve the conflicts, and generate the solutions of a project.
– Brainstorming is a technique that involves generating a large number of ideas or alternatives for a problem or opportunity, usually in a creative and spontaneous way. Brainstorming can help to enhance the creativity, diversity, and quality of the ideas, and encourage the participation and collaboration of the team members.

NEW QUESTION 211
A project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted when a new product is delivered to the company. The project manager notices that more stakeholders will be positively impacted than negatively impacted. Which of the following actions should the project manager take?

A.    List both positively and negatively impacted stakeholders.
B.    Update the communication plan with the new findings.
C.    List the negatively impacted stakeholders only.
D.    List the positively impacted stakeholders only.

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted by the delivery of a new product, it is important to update the communication plan to reflect these findings. This ensures that all stakeholders are informed about the project’s progress and how it may affect them, fostering transparency and managing expectations.

NEW QUESTION 212
A project manager, who finished a project some time ago, keeps receiving questions from another project manager who is currently leading a similar project. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation?

A.    The retrospective session feedback was not communicated properly.
B.    The project resources were released ahead of time.
C.    The documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards.
D.    The validation of deliverables is running behind schedule.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Archiving project documentation is an important process to ensure that the project information is stored, retrieved, and updated in a consistent and efficient manner. It also helps to meet legal requirements, enable long-term analysis, and support new projects and team members. If the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards, it would be difficult for the current project manager to find the relevant documents and learn from the previous project. This would cause the current project manager to keep asking questions to the previous project manager, who may not have all the answers or may not be available. Therefore, the most likely cause of this situation is that the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards.

NEW QUESTION 213
A PM is working on the preliminary scope statement and identifies that this project has the same approach as another project that was completed last year. Which of the following actions would the PM most likely perform?

A.    Call the previous PM for advice on risks and issues.
B.    Ask the project sponsor to provide previous final project report results.
C.    Complete the project charter using the other PM’s subject matter expertise.
D.    Use existing artifacts and accommodate based on the current project success criteria.

Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of using historical information and lessons learned from previous projects to improve the planning and execution of current projects. By using existing artifacts, such as scope statements, project plans, risk registers, and change logs, the PM can leverage the knowledge and experience of the previous PM and avoid repeating the same mistakes or oversights. However, the PM should also accommodate the artifacts based on the current project success criteria, which may differ from the previous project in terms of scope, schedule, budget, quality, or stakeholder expectations. The PM should not rely solely on the previous PM’s advice, the project sponsor’s report, or the project charter, as these sources may not provide enough detail or accuracy for the current project’s scope statement.

NEW QUESTION 214
A project manager has decided to outsource portions of a project and will conduct a separate procurement. In which of the following phases does this task occur?

A.    Planning
B.    Initiating
C.    Controlling
D.    Executing

Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is based on the understanding that outsourcing is a form of procurement, which is one of the knowledge areas in project management. Procurement involves acquiring goods and services from external sources to support the project objectives. According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, procurement activities occur mainly in the planning phase of the project, where the project manager identifies the project needs, defines the scope of work, evaluates the potential vendors, and prepares the procurement documents. The other options are not correct because:
– Initiating is the phase where the project manager defines the project purpose, objectives, and deliverables, and obtains the project charter and stakeholder approval. Initiating does not involve procurement activities, although it may involve some preliminary research on the feasibility and availability of external resources.
– Controlling is the phase where the project manager monitors and measures the project performance, compares it with the baseline, and implements corrective actions if needed. Controlling does involve some procurement activities, such as reviewing the vendor deliverables, managing the changes, and resolving the issues, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.
– Executing is the phase where the project manager leads and directs the project team and other resources to complete the project work according to the plan. Executing does involve some procurement activities, such as selecting the vendor, signing the contract, and managing the relationship, but these are not the main tasks of procurement.

NEW QUESTION 215
During an agile project, a team member checked the project artifacts in order to anticipate when all the work should have been completed. Which of the following charts was the team member most likely consulting?

A.    Pareto chart.
B.    Milestone chart.
C.    Burndown chart.
D.    Gantt chart.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A burndown chart is a visual representation of the remaining work versus the time required to complete it. It is commonly used by agile teams to track the progress of each iteration or sprint and to forecast the project completion date. A burndown chart shows the ideal work remaining line and the actual work remaining line, which can help the team identify any deviations or impediments and adjust accordingly. A burndown chart is different from a Pareto chart, which shows the frequency of different causes of problems; a milestone chart, which shows the key events and deliverables of a project; and a Gantt chart, which shows the dependencies and durations of tasks in a project.

NEW QUESTION 216
A project coordinator has started a new project and is reviewing the following characteristics provided by the customer:
– Two developers.
– High uncertainty about existing systems.
– Risk of frequent requirement changes.
– Tight deadlines.
Which of the following project methodologies would be best to use in this situation?

A.    PRINCE2
B.    Scrum
C.    SAFe
D.    XP

Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of choosing a project management methodology that suits the project characteristics and environment. Scrum is an agile framework that is designed to handle complex and uncertain projects with frequent changes and tight deadlines. Scrum involves a small, cross-functional team that works in short iterations called sprints, delivering incremental and potentially shippable products at the end of each sprint. Scrum also allows for continuous feedback and improvement through daily stand-up meetings, sprint reviews, and retrospectives. Scrum is suitable for this project because it can accommodate the high uncertainty, the risk of requirement changes, and the tight deadlines, while also enabling the two developers to collaborate effectively and deliver value to the customer.

NEW QUESTION 217
Which of the following would be considered operational security?

A.    Mobile device compliance.
B.    Background screening.
C.    Multifactor authentication.
D.    Facility access.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Operational security (OPSEC) is a process that prevents sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands by viewing operations from the perspective of an adversary. Facility access is a form of OPSEC that controls who can enter and exit a physical location where sensitive data or equipment is stored or processed. Facility access can include measures such as locks, alarms, badges, biometrics, guards, and cameras. The other options are not correct because:
– Mobile device compliance is a policy that ensures that mobile devices used by employees or contractors meet certain security standards and requirements, such as encryption, password protection, antivirus, and remote wipe. Mobile device compliance is not a form of OPSEC, but rather a form of data security or device management.
– Background screening is a process that checks the criminal, financial, and employment history of a potential employee or contractor before hiring them. Background screening is not a form of OPSEC, but rather a form of human resource management or risk mitigation.
– Multifactor authentication is a method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system or service, such as a password, a code, a token, or a biometric. Multifactor authentication is not a form of OPSEC, but rather a form of access control or identity management.

NEW QUESTION 218
A project is running over budget, and due to new legislation in the country, the company needs to release all its contractors on the project or hire them as full-time employees. Which of the following should the PM do next to comply with the new legislation?

A.    Use only full-time employees even if the project is delayed.
B.    Hire all team members to avoid any delay in the project.
C.    Close the contract and pay the contractors cash for the remainder of the project.
D.    Look for an overseas vendor to finalize the project work.

Answer: A
Explanation:
In response to new legislation requiring the release of contractors or their conversion to full-time employees, the project manager should prioritize compliance with the law. This may involve using only full-time employees, even if it results in project delays. The focus should be on legal compliance and the ethical treatment of workers, rather than solely on project timelines.

NEW QUESTION 219
Which of the following tools is best to use for storing lessons learned?

A.    Whiteboard.
B.    Wiki knowledge base.
C.    Content management system.
D.    Workflow platform.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a collaborative online platform that allows users to create, edit, and share information about a specific topic or domain. A wiki knowledge base is best to use for storing lessons learned because it enables easy access, retrieval, and update of the lessons learned by project teams and stakeholders. A wiki knowledge base can also support keyword search, version control, and linking of related documents. A wiki knowledge base is different from a whiteboard, which is a physical or digital board that can be used for brainstorming, sketching, or presenting ideas; a content management system, which is a software application that allows users to create, manage, and publish digital content; and a workflow platform, which is a software tool that automates and streamlines business processes.

NEW QUESTION 220
A project sponsor is struggling to provide the latest project status information on a weekly executive call. Which of the following should be reviewed?

A.    Meeting cadence.
B.    Gap analysis.
C.    Dashboard.
D.    Adoption training.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A dashboard is a visual tool that displays key project metrics and indicators in a single view. A dashboard can help a project sponsor to provide the latest project status information on a weekly executive call by showing the project progress, budget, schedule, risks, issues, and milestones in a clear and concise way. A dashboard can also facilitate communication, collaboration, and decision making among project stakeholders. A dashboard should be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the current state of the project.

NEW QUESTION 221
A team member identifies a critical issue in production. Which of the following should the project manager apply?

A.    Compliance check.
B.    Release plan.
C.    Rollback plan.
D.    Validation check.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A rollback plan, also known as a backout plan, is a strategy designed to reverse changes made during a project in case of failure or undesired results. A rollback plan is a form of risk response that allows the project to restore the previous state and minimize the impact of the issue. A rollback plan is usually created during the planning phase and implemented during the execution or closing phase of the project. The other options are not correct because:
– A compliance check is a process that ensures that the project meets the relevant standards, regulations, and requirements. A compliance check is not a risk response, but rather a quality control or assurance activity.
– A release plan is a document that outlines the scope, schedule, and resources for delivering a product or service to the customer. A release plan is not a risk response, but rather a communication or scope management tool.
– A validation check is a process that verifies that the project deliverables meet the customer’s needs and expectations. A validation check is not a risk response, but rather a quality control or assurance activity.

NEW QUESTION 222
One of the key steps in controlling changes lo software is obtaining approval. Which of the following statements best describes the reason for this key objective?

A.    To send the appropriate customer notifications.
B.    To avoid a negative impact on other software functionalities.
C.    To ensure adequate resources are in place to implement the change.
D.    To confirm that the software is a business priority.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Obtaining approval for changes to software is crucial to ensure that the changes do not negatively impact other functionalities of the software. Approval processes typically involve a review that assesses the potential impacts of the change, which helps in mitigating risks associated with the change.

NEW QUESTION 223
A project manager is eager to define access requirements during the initiation phase of a project. Which of the following steps should the project manager perform first?

A.    Define the WBS.
B.    Develop a RAM.
C.    Manage the vendors.
D.    Assess the resource pool.

Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of defining access requirements in project management, which is to identify the roles, responsibilities, and permissions of the project team members and other stakeholders who need to access the project information, resources, and deliverables. The first step in this process is to assess the resource pool, which is the availability and capability of the human resources that can be assigned to the project. By assessing the resource pool, the project manager can determine the skills, experience, and security clearance of the potential project team members, as well as their reporting relationships, communication preferences, and expectations. This information can help the project manager to define the access requirements for each role and stakeholder group, and to assign the appropriate level of access to the project data, documents, tools, and systems.

NEW QUESTION 224
A project team is defining operational training, discussing a go-live date, and describing the operational handoff. Which of the following best describes what the team is developing?

A.    The project closeout report.
B.    A handover to operations.
C.    Phase-gate review documentation.
D.    A transition plan.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A transition plan is a document that outlines how the project deliverables will be transferred to the operations team or the end users, and how the project team will disengage from the project. It typically includes details such as operational training, go-live date, support arrangements, roles and responsibilities, and acceptance criteria. A transition plan is different from a project closeout report, which summarizes the project performance, lessons learned, and final status. A handover to operations is a process of transferring the project deliverables to the operations team, but it is not a document. A phase-gate review documentation is a set of documents that are used to evaluate the project progress and readiness to move to the next phase, but it is not related to the operational handoff.

NEW QUESTION 225
Although a project was successfully released into production a month ago, a project manager continues to receive project-related work. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?

A.    The project manager did not release the resources.
B.    The project is in the verification testing phase.
C.    The project manager did not complete the project closure phase.
D.    The project manager did not remove access.

Answer: C
Explanation:
If a project manager continues to receive project-related work after the project has been released into production, it suggests that the project closure phase was not completed properly. The project closure phase involves several activities, including ensuring that all project deliverables are accepted, documenting the lessons learned, releasing project resources, and formally closing the project. If these activities are not completed, the project can remain ‘open’ in a sense, leading to continued work and inquiries.

NEW QUESTION 226
Which of the following is a reason to use a SOW on a project?

A.    To find out the contact information for the vendors.
B.    To review the list of stakeholders.
C.    To ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract.
D.    To give explicit instruction on how to execute the work.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a formal document that defines the entire scope of work involved for a vendor and clarifies deliverables, costs, and timeline. It serves as a contractual agreement between a vendor and a client, providing a comprehensive description of the work to be performed. A reason to use a SOW on a project is to ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract, as it outlines what the team will and won’t do on a project, saving from painful client negotiations and protecting the timeline and the bottom line.

NEW QUESTION 227
A PM is working on the schedule for a project that has technical tasks and requires a SME’s knowledge. The PM decides the best way to track this project is to have the project lead provide high-level updates. Which of the following is the best tool to track this data?

A.    Gantt chart.
B.    Project organization chart.
C.    Program Evaluation Review Technique chart.
D.    Milestone chart.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A milestone chart is a tool that shows the key events or deliverables of a project along a timeline. A milestone chart is useful for tracking the progress of a project that has technical tasks and requires a SME’s knowledge, because it can provide a high-level overview of the project status, without getting into the details of each task or activity. A milestone chart can help the PM and the project lead communicate the project achievements, challenges, and expectations to the stakeholders, and also identify any potential risks or delays that may affect the project completion. A milestone chart is better than the other options because:
– A Gantt chart is a tool that shows the tasks, dependencies, durations, and resources of a project along a timeline.
– A Gantt chart is more detailed and complex than a milestone chart, and may not be suitable for providing high-level updates to the stakeholders. A project organization chart is a tool that shows the roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships of the project team members and other stakeholders. A project organization chart is not a tool for tracking project data, but rather for defining the project structure and authority.
– A Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) chart is a tool that shows the tasks, dependencies, and critical path of a project along a network diagram. A PERT chart is more focused on the sequence and timing of the project tasks, and may not capture the key milestones or deliverables of the project.

NEW QUESTION 228
Which of the following cloud models is designed to provide compute, storage, and networking resources on demand?

A.    Software as a service.
B.    Infrastructure as a service.
C.    Data as a service.
D.    Platform as a service.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking resources. IaaS customers can provision, configure, and use these resources as they would use on-premises hardware, but without the hassle of purchasing, installing, managing, and maintaining them. The cloud service provider owns, manages, and maintains the hardware and computing resources in its own data centers, and charges the customers based on their usage. IaaS is suitable for customers who need flexibility, scalability, and control over their IT infrastructure, and who want to avoid the high costs and complexity of owning and operating their own hardware. The other options are not correct because:
– Software as a service (SaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to ready-to-use, cloud- hosted application software. SaaS customers do not need to install, update, or maintain the software, as the cloud service provider handles all the technical aspects. SaaS is suitable for customers who need to access common applications, such as email, office productivity, or customer relationship management, without worrying about the underlying infrastructure or platform.
– Data as a service (DaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted data sources, such as databases, data warehouses, or data lakes. DaaS customers can query, analyze, and visualize the data, as well as integrate it with other applications or services, using APIs or web interfaces. DaaS is suitable for customers who need to leverage data from various sources, such as social media, IoT devices, or third-party providers, without having to store, manage, or process the data themselves.
– Platform as a service (PaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to a complete, ready- to-use, cloud-hosted platform for developing, running, maintaining, and managing applications. PaaS customers can use the platform’s tools, frameworks, libraries, and services to create and deploy applications, without having to worry about the underlying infrastructure or software. PaaS is suitable for customers who need to develop, test, and deploy applications quickly and efficiently, and who want to take advantage of the cloud’s scalability, reliability, and security features.

NEW QUESTION 229
A team is analyzing the backlog in order to decide what to include in the next sprint. Which of the following aspects is the most important for the team to take into consideration?

A.    Time to be fixed.
B.    Impact to project.
C.    Issue category.
D.    Resource availability.

Answer: B
Explanation:
When analyzing the backlog to decide what to include in the next sprint, the most important aspect to consider is the impact to the project. This involves assessing which items will provide the most value and contribute significantly towards achieving the project goals. It’s crucial to prioritize work that has the highest impact on the project’s success.

NEW QUESTION 230
Which of the following is the main reason for documenting artifacts?

A.    To provide a record of the project’s progress and achievements for future reference.
B.    To show stakeholders that the project is on track and progressing as planned.
C.    To help team members be aware of roles and responsibilities.
D.    To ensure that the project team understands the importance of the project to the organization.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Documenting artifacts is the main reason for creating and maintaining project documents that relate to the management of the project, not the project deliverables. Artifacts are used to define, support, and align the project work to the project requirements and business goals. They also serve as a source of information and evidence for future projects, audits, reviews, and lessons learned. Documenting artifacts helps to capture the project’s history, performance, outcomes, and best practices, which can be useful for organizational learning and improvement.

NEW QUESTION 231
A project manager has decided to wait until all requirements are developed to initiate testing. Which of the following relationship dependencies is the project manager using?

A.    Start-to-finish.
B.    Finish-to-finish.
C.    Finish-to-start.
D.    Start-to-start.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A finish-to-start dependency is a type of relationship dependency in project management, where the start of one task depends on the finish of another task. In this case, the project manager is using a finish-to-start dependency, because testing cannot start until requirements development is finished. This implies that testing is a successor task, and requirements development is a predecessor task. A finish-to-start dependency is the most common type of dependency in project management, and it ensures that tasks are performed in a logical sequence.

NEW QUESTION 232
A project team is working on a document to precisely describe the success criteria that should be fulfilled by a product. Which of the following documents is the team preparing?

A.    Project scope.
B.    Quality plan.
C.    Contract obligations.
D.    Work breakdown structure.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The project scope is the document that defines and describes the project objectives, deliverables, requirements, boundaries, assumptions, and constraints. It also includes the success criteria that should be fulfilled by the product or service to meet the stakeholder expectations and the business case. The success criteria are the measurable standards that indicate whether the project has achieved its intended results. The other options are not correct because:
– A quality plan is the document that defines and describes the quality standards, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques that will be applied to the project to ensure that the deliverables meet the requirements and the success criteria.
– Contract obligations are the terms and conditions that bind the parties involved in a contractual agreement, such as the project manager, the customer, the sponsor, and the vendor. Contract obligations specify the roles, responsibilities, deliverables, payments, and penalties of each party.
– A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a graphical representation of the project scope that breaks down the deliverables into smaller and manageable components. A WBS shows the hierarchy and relationship of the project elements, but does not include the success criteria.

NEW QUESTION 233
A project manager is overseeing the implementation of a major upgrade to a critical ERP system. The project sponsor is requiring that the upgrade should not exceed more than three hours of downtime for the implementation and validation in production. During cutover, the team runs into a validation issue after 2.5 hours, and the process is only 70% through the validation steps. Which of the following actions should the project manager take?

A.    Notify customers the downtime will take longer than expected.
B.    Add new team members to help speed up validation.
C.    Begin executing the rollback plan.
D.    Record the issue and proceed with the implementation.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When a critical ERP system upgrade encounters a validation issue and is at risk of exceeding the allotted downtime, the project manager should begin executing the rollback plan. This action is taken to ensure that the system can be restored to its previous state without exceeding the downtime limit, thus minimizing the impact on the business operations.

NEW QUESTION 234
A project manager buys an extended warranty for a set of servers. Which of the following risk management strategies is the manager using?

A.    Transfer
B.    Avoid
C.    Accept
D.    Mitigate

Answer: A
Explanation:
Transfer is a risk management strategy that involves shifting the responsibility or impact of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a contractor. By buying an extended warranty for a set of servers, the project manager is transferring the risk of server failure or malfunction to the warranty provider, who will cover the cost of repair or replacement in case of a risk event. This way, the project manager reduces the exposure and liability of the project to the risk, while still retaining some level of accountability and oversight.

NEW QUESTION 235
How does data discovery assist with data classification’?

A.    It shows where specific data is stored.
B.    It automatically classifies data by keywords.
C.    It helps to identify the data owner.
D.    It provides assurance of data integrity.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Data discovery is the process of finding and analyzing data across an organization’s data sources, such as databases, files, cloud services, and applications. Data discovery can assist with data classification, which is the process of assigning labels and categories to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. By showing where specific data is stored, data discovery can help to:
– Identify the location and scope of sensitive data, such as personal, financial, or health information, that may require special protection or compliance measures.
– Evaluate the data quality, accuracy, and relevance for different purposes and users.
– Optimize the data storage, access, and governance policies and practices.

NEW QUESTION 236
Two developers are discussing the design solution for a particular feature. The meeting is taking longer than expected, and the parties have been unable to reach an agreement. The project manager decides to take a break and continue the meeting on another day. Which of the following techniques is the project manager using?

A.    Avoiding
B.    Smoothing
C.    Forcing
D.    Compromising

Answer: A
Explanation:
Avoiding is a conflict resolution technique that involves postponing or withdrawing from a conflict situation. The project manager is using this technique by taking a break and continuing the meeting on another day, hoping that the conflict will resolve itself or become less important over time. This technique may be appropriate when the conflict is trivial, the potential damage is greater than the benefits, or more information is needed before making a decision.

NEW QUESTION 237
During a complex, multiyear project, a PM must discern which project tasks overlap so resources can be allocated appropriately. Which of the following is best for determining this information?

A.    PERT chart.
B.    Milestone chart.
C.    Gantt chart.
D.    Budget burndown chart.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A Gantt chart is a visual tool used in project management to represent the timing of tasks required to complete a project. It is particularly useful for showing the start and finish dates of elements of a project, dependencies between tasks, and the current schedule status. This makes it an ideal choice for a project manager to discern overlapping tasks and allocate resources efficiently.

NEW QUESTION 238
During the testing phase of a project, the legal department rejected a deliverable due to compliance issues. The project manager reviewed the risk register and triggered the mitigation plan for this item. Which of the following documents should the project manager update next?

A.    Schedule.
B.    Status report.
C.    Issue log.
D.    Task board.

Answer: C
Explanation:
An issue log is a document that records and tracks any issues that arise during a project and how they are resolved. It is different from a risk register, which records and tracks potential risks that may or may not occur during a project. When a risk becomes an issue, it means that it has occurred and has a negative impact on the project. Therefore, the project manager should update the issue log next to document the compliance issue, its cause, its impact, its priority, its owner, and its resolution status. Updating the issue log will help the project manager communicate the issue to the stakeholders, monitor the progress of the mitigation plan, and prevent similar issues from happening again.

NEW QUESTION 239
A piece of equipment has malfunctioned and is stalling the completion of a deliverable for a project. Which of the following should the project manager do next?

A.    Buy a replacement for the faulty equipment.
B.    Get the maintenance team to resolve the issue.
C.    Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.
D.    Rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project.

Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of issue management in project management, which is to identify, analyze, prioritize, and resolve issues that affect the project performance, scope, schedule, quality, or budget. The first step in this process is to rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project, which involves assessing the likelihood and consequences of the issue, and assigning a rating or score to the issue based on a predefined scale or criteria. By rating the severity of the impact, the project manager can determine the urgency and importance of the issue, and decide the appropriate course of action to address the issue. Rating the severity of the impact is better than the other options because:
– Buying a replacement for the faulty equipment may not be feasible, cost-effective, or timely, depending on the availability, price, and delivery time of the equipment. It may also require approval from the project sponsor or other stakeholders, and may affect the project budget or scope.
– Getting the maintenance team to resolve the issue may not be possible, depending on the nature and extent of the malfunction, the skills and availability of the maintenance team, and the warranty or service contract of the equipment. It may also take time and resources to diagnose and fix the problem, and may cause further delays or disruptions to the project.
– Escalating the issue to the project sponsor may not be necessary, depending on the severity and complexity of the issue, and the authority and responsibility of the project manager. It may also create unnecessary alarm or confusion among the project stakeholders, and may undermine the project manager’s credibility or autonomy.

NEW QUESTION 240
When introducing a new information asset, what is the MOST important responsibility of the asset owner?

A.    Information disposal.
B.    Information classification.
C.    Information access administration.
D.    Information backup.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important responsibility of an asset owner when introducing a new information asset is information classification. This process involves determining the level of sensitivity and the appropriate handling of the asset. Classification helps in applying the right security controls and access permissions, ensuring that the asset is protected according to its value and sensitivity.

NEW QUESTION 241
Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views?

A.    Compromising
B.    Forcing
C.    Smoothing
D.    Collaborating

Answer: C
Explanation:
Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique that involves minimizing or ignoring the differences between the parties and focusing on the common interests or goals. It is often used when the conflict is not very important or when there is a need to maintain harmony and relationships. By using smoothing, the project manager can reduce the tension and stress caused by the disagreement and encourage the team members to cooperate and work together. Smoothing is different from compromising, which involves finding a middle ground or a trade-off that partially satisfies both parties; forcing, which involves imposing one’s own solution or decision on the other party; and collaborating, which involves finding a win-win solution that fully satisfies both parties.

NEW QUESTION 242
A PM wants to add a chart to the monthly status report to show major accomplishments for key events. Which of the following is the best chart to use?

A.    Milestone
B.    Gantt
C.    Burndown
D.    PERT

Answer: A
Explanation:
A milestone chart is the best chart to use to show major accomplishments for key events, because it displays the important deliverables or outcomes of a project along a timeline. A milestone chart can provide a high-level overview of the project progress and achievements, without showing the details of each task or activity. A milestone chart can also help communicate the project status and expectations to the stakeholders, and identify any potential risks or delays that may affect the project completion.

NEW QUESTION 243
As a part of a project, structured cabling activities have been outsourced to another company. The agreement is that work will take six weeks to complete and will be performed at different locations. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Choose two.)

A.    Purchase the materials.
B.    Assign the resources.
C.    Accept delays in the work.
D.    Approve the deliverables.
E.    Monitor the performance.
F.    Negotiate with the vendors.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
The project manager should approve the deliverables and monitor the performance of the outsourced structured cabling activities. These are the responsibilities of the project manager when dealing with external vendors or contractors, as they ensure that the quality standards, scope, schedule, and budget are met according to the contract terms and the project plan. The project manager should also communicate regularly with the vendor and provide feedback and guidance as needed. The other options are not correct because:
– Purchasing the materials is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only verify that the materials are suitable and available for the project.
– Assigning the resources is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only ensure that the vendor has the adequate and qualified resources to complete the work.
– Accepting delays in the work is not a good practice for the project manager, as it can negatively affect the project schedule, scope, and quality. The project manager should proactively identify and manage the risks and issues that may cause delays, and implement contingency plans or corrective actions if necessary.
– Negotiating with the vendors is not a task that the project manager should do during the execution of the structured cabling activities, as it should have been done during the planning and procurement phases of the project. The project manager should only adhere to the contract terms and conditions that have been agreed upon with the vendor, and only renegotiate if there are significant changes or disputes that require it.

NEW QUESTION 244
Which of the following activities would be performed during the project closure phase when the waterfall methodology is being used? (Choose two.)

A.    Creating a backlog.
B.    Managing the quality of deliverables.
C.    Updating the issue log.
D.    Performing a risk assessment.
E.    Validating the deliverables.
F.    Reconciling the project budget.

Answer: EF
Explanation:
During the project closure phase in the waterfall methodology, it is crucial to validate the deliverables to ensure that all project requirements have been met and the project outputs are complete and satisfactory. Additionally, reconciling the project budget is performed to ensure all financial records are accurate and reflect the actual project costs, which is essential for the formal closing of the project.

NEW QUESTION 245
A stakeholder raises a concern with a project manager because of the number of emails that have been received before a coding release. Which of the following actions should the project manager take next?

A.    Inform the CCB to stop communication.
B.    Establish a RACI matrix.
C.    Escalate the communication issues.
D.    Revise the communication plan.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When stakeholders express concerns about the volume of communication, it’s important to review and adjust the communication plan to ensure it meets the project’s needs and stakeholders’ preferences. A RACI matrix is useful for defining roles and responsibilities but does not address communication frequency or methods directly. Escalating the issue may not be necessary if it can be resolved by revising the plan. Informing the CCB (Change Control Board) to stop communication is not advisable as the CCB’s role is to oversee changes, not to manage day-to-day communications.

NEW QUESTION 246
A project is executed to migrate all data to a single system following the merger of two companies. The team validates that system performance will not be impacted. Which of the following did the team perform?

A.    Regression testing.
B.    Smoke testing.
C.    Stress testing.
D.    Automation testing.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates how a system behaves under extreme load conditions, such as high volume of data, concurrent users, or transactions. Stress testing can help to identify the system’s breaking point, bottlenecks, and resource limitations, and to ensure that the system can recover from failures and maintain its functionality. In this case, the team performed stress testing to validate that system performance will not be impacted by migrating all data to a single system following the merger of two companies. This implies that the team simulated a high amount of data transfer and processing, and measured the system’s response time, throughput, availability, and reliability under such load. Stress testing is better than the other options because:
– Regression testing is a type of functional testing that verifies that a system’s existing features and functionality are not affected by a change or an update. Regression testing does not focus on system performance or load conditions, but rather on system correctness and quality.
– Smoke testing is a type of functional testing that checks the basic functionality and stability of a system before performing more detailed and comprehensive testing. Smoke testing does not measure system performance or load conditions, but rather ensures that the system is ready for further testing.
– Automation testing is a technique of using software tools or scripts to execute test cases and compare the actual results with the expected results. Automation testing is not a specific type of testing, but rather a way of performing testing. Automation testing can be applied to various types of testing, including stress testing, regression testing, and smoke testing.

NEW QUESTION 247
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program?

A.    Residual risk.
B.    Regulatory requirements.
C.    Risk tolerance.
D.    Control objectives.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Control objectives are the desired outcomes or goals of implementing security controls to mitigate risks and protect information assets. Control objectives should be the primary basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program, as they align with the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the organization and its stakeholders. Metrics based on control objectives can help to evaluate the performance, efficiency, and maturity of the security program, and to identify gaps, issues, and areas for improvement. The other options are not correct because:
– Residual risk is the remaining risk after applying security controls. Residual risk is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a result of measuring the effectiveness of security controls. Residual risk should be monitored and reported, but it does not define the desired outcomes or goals of the security program.
– Regulatory requirements are the external standards, laws, and regulations that the organization must comply with to avoid legal or financial penalties. Regulatory requirements are not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a constraint or a driver for the security program. Metrics based on regulatory requirements can help to demonstrate compliance, but they may not reflect the actual effectiveness or efficiency of the security program.
– Risk tolerance is the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or bear. Risk tolerance is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a factor or an input for the security program. Metrics based on risk tolerance can help to prioritize and allocate resources, but they may not measure the actual outcomes or goals of the security program.

NEW QUESTION 248
Because the project team lacks hands-on experience, the project manager has decided to involve a third-party vendor to complete the development of a product. Which of the following documents should the project manager expedite first?

A.    RFI
B.    RFP
C.    RFQ
D.    RFB

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a project team lacks hands-on experience and decides to involve a third-party vendor for product development, the first document to expedite is a Request for Proposal (RFP). An RFP outlines the project requirements and asks potential vendors to submit proposals detailing how they would meet those requirements and at what cost. This allows the project manager to evaluate the capabilities and offerings of different vendors before making a decision.

NEW QUESTION 249
Which of the following metrics BEST measures the alignment of the information security program to operational objectives?

A.    Percentage of controls with identified business owners.
B.    Percentage of risk investments with defined business cases.
C.    Ratio of control cost to operational budget.
D.    Senior management satisfaction scores related to the security program.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The percentage of risk investments with defined business cases is a metric that measures how well the information security program aligns with the operational objectives of the organization. It indicates how many of the security-related investments are justified by a clear analysis of the expected benefits, costs, and risks, and how they support the business goals and priorities. This metric can help the organization optimize its security spending, demonstrate the value of security to the stakeholders, and align the security strategy with the business strategy.

NEW QUESTION 250
Which of the following statements best describes a content management system?

A.    A system to manage electronic signatures and document workflow.
B.    A system to manage database integration and provide messaging services.
C.    A system to manage shared data on the web, allowing multiple contributors to create, edit, and publish.
D.    A system to manage documents archival, such as emails, spreadsheets, and support tickets.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A content management system (CMS) is a software application that allows users to create, manage, and deliver content via digital channels, such as websites, blogs, or social media. A CMS enables multiple contributors to access, edit, and publish content without requiring technical knowledge or coding skills. A CMS also provides features such as templates, workflows, media libraries, and analytics to help users design, organize, and optimize their content.

NEW QUESTION 251
Which of the following pieces of data are examples of Pll?

A.    Medical record and test result values.
B.    IP address and email address.
C.    Name and year of birth.
D.    X-ray and blood type.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific individual.

NEW QUESTION 252
A project manager receives an escalation from an external group reporting that an expected deliverable should have been available some time ago. After analysis, the project team realizes the deliverable was provided on time. Which of the following should the project manager do next?

A.    Request a change control ticket.
B.    Review the schedule plan.
C.    Refine the project documentation.
D.    Revise the communication plan.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When a project manager receives an escalation about a deliverable that was actually provided on time, it indicates a communication issue. The next step should be to revise the communication plan to ensure that all stakeholders are properly informed about project progress and deliverables in the future. This helps to prevent misunderstandings and ensures that everyone has the correct information.

NEW QUESTION 253
A project was closed according to the planned project schedule. Security teams later identified that one of the contractors stole data after the project’s closure. Which of the following would have most likely prevented the data from being stolen?

A.    Removing access.
B.    Closing contracts.
C.    Project sign-off.
D.    Project evaluation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Removing access means revoking the contractor’s permissions to access the project data, systems, and devices after the project is closed. This is a crucial security measure to prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft of sensitive data by external parties. Closing contracts, project sign-off, and project evaluation are important steps in the project closure process, but they do not necessarily prevent data theft by themselves. They may involve formal agreements, documentation, and feedback, but they do not address the technical aspects of data security.

NEW QUESTION 254
A project manager is receiving reports of the actual project expenditures and, based on this information, is making adjustments to the budget. In which of the following phases does this occur?

A.    Planning
B.    Closure
C.    Initiation
D.    Execution

Answer: D
Explanation:
The execution phase is when the project manager and the team execute the project plan, deliver the project outputs, and monitor and control the project performance. This includes tracking and managing the project budget, scope, schedule, quality, and risks. Making adjustments to the budget based on the actual project expenditures is part of the monitoring and controlling process in the execution phase.

NEW QUESTION 255
A project team is developing an application that will allocate a building’s parking spaces. The building owner does not agree with using corporate colors in the application and has blocked the release of the beta version for testing. Which of the following best describes what the project manager should have done in the initiation phase to prevent this issue?

A.    Review of existing artifacts.
B.    Development of an issue log.
C.    Identification and assessment of stakeholders.
D.    Establishment of accepted communication channels.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The project manager should have identified and assessed the building owner as a key stakeholder in the initiation phase, and understood their expectations and requirements for the application. This would have helped to avoid the conflict over the corporate colors and the delay in testing. Stakeholder identification and assessment is an important process in the initiation phase, as it helps to define the project scope, objectives, and success criteria, and to establish a communication plan.

NEW QUESTION 256
Which of the following should be considered first when determining the privacy management for project data?

A.    Evaluating the current privacy protection program.
B.    Understanding applicable privacy regulations.
C.    Maintaining awareness of industry best practices.
D.    Implementing security role-based controls.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Before starting a new project that involves personal data, the project manager should first understand the relevant privacy regulations that apply to the data subjects, the data controllers, and the data processors. These regulations may vary depending on the location, industry, and nature of the data. For example, GDPR applies to any project that processes the personal data of individuals in the European Union, regardless of where the project is based or executed. Understanding the applicable privacy regulations will help the project manager to identify the legal obligations, risks, and compliance requirements for the project data.

NEW QUESTION 257
A company needs to have structured cabling installed in one of its buildings. Which of the following would be the best document for the company to use to obtain and compare information on cabling services and costs from various vendors?

A.    RFB
B.    RFQ
C.    RFI
D.    RFP

Answer: D
Explanation:
A request for proposal (RFP) is the best document for the company to use in this scenario, because it is the most detailed and personalized type of request document. An RFP allows the company to specify the project scope, requirements, deliverables, evaluation criteria, and budget for the structured cabling installation, and to solicit proposals from various vendors that can meet those needs. An RFP also enables the company to compare the vendors based on their qualifications, experience, methodology, and pricing, and to select the best one for the project. An RFP is more suitable than an RFB, RFQ, or RFI, because those documents are less comprehensive and more generic, and they do not provide enough information for the company to make an informed decision.

NEW QUESTION 258
While working in a collaborative, online brainstorming session, team members send private messages to the facilitator about challenges understanding others when they are speaking due to accents and background noises. Which of the following should the facilitator do to overcome the challenges?

A.    Instruct the team members to set their speakers to maximum volume and mute their microphones.
B.    Require everyone to turn on their cameras and use the same background filter.
C.    Encourage the use of the chat and use plain language when speaking.
D.    Allow one person to speak at a time after receiving acknowledgment from the facilitator.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Using the chat and plain language can help overcome the communication barriers caused by accents and background noises. Chat allows team members to write down their ideas and questions, which can be easier to understand than spoken words. Plain language reduces the ambiguity and complexity of the messages, making them more clear and concise. These techniques can also enhance the participation and engagement of the team members, as they can express their thoughts and opinions more comfortably and confidently.

NEW QUESTION 259
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