[5-Sep-2023] New Cloud+ CV0-003 Dumps with VCE and PDF from PassLeader (New Questions)

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NEW QUESTION 791
A financial industry services firm was the victim of an internal data breach, and the perpetrator was a member of the company’s development team. During the investigation. one of the security administrators accidentally deleted the perpetrator’s user data. Even though the data is recoverable, which of the following has been violated?

A.    Chain of custody.
B.    Evidence acquisition.
C.    Containment.
D.    Root cause analysis.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The chain of custody refers to the process of maintaining a record of the location, custody, and control of electronic evidence from the time it is collected to the time it is presented in court. In the given scenario, the security administrator accidentally deleted the perpetrator’s user data during the investigation, which violates the chain of custody. By deleting the data, the administrator has altered the original evidence, which can affect the outcome of the investigation and any legal proceedings that may follow.

NEW QUESTION 792
A cloud administrator is monitoring a database system and notices an unusual increase in the read operations, which is causing a heavy load in the system. The system is using a relational database and is running in a VM. Which of the following should the administrator do to resolve the issue with minimal architectural changes?

A.    Migrate the relational database to a NoSQL database.
B.    Use a cache system to store reading operations.
C.    Create a secondary standby database instance.
D.    Implement the database system using a DBaaS.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A cache system is a temporary storage that stores frequently accessed data. This can help to improve the performance of the database system by reducing the number of times the database needs to be accessed.

NEW QUESTION 793
A financial services company is considering its options for moving its infrastructure to the cloud. The company runs its critical database on a proprietary legacy mainframe, which cannot be hosted anywhere but in the data center. However, the company would like to migrate portions of the infrastructure to an external provider. Which of the following cloud deployment models would be the BEST option?

A.    Private
B.    Public
C.    Community
D.    Hybrid

Answer: D
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud is a combination of a public cloud and a private cloud. This allows the company to keep its critical database in the data center while migrating other workloads to the public cloud.

NEW QUESTION 794
A storage administrator is reviewing the storage consumption of a SAN appliance that is running a VDI environment. Which of the following features should the administrator implement to BEST reduce the storage consumption of the SAN?

A.    Deduplication.
B.    Thick provisioning.
C.    Compression.
D.    SDS.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Deduplication is a technique that removes duplicate copies of data. This can help to significantly reduce the amount of storage space that is required.

NEW QUESTION 795
A company is deploying a public cloud solution for an existing application using lift and shift. The requirements for the applications are scalability and external access. Which of the following should the company implement? (Choose two.)

A.    A load balancer.
B.    SDN.
C.    A firewall.
D.    SR-IOV.
E.    Storage replication.
F.    A VPN.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The company should implement a load balancer and a firewall to meet the scalability and external access requirements for the application. A load balancer distributes traffic across multiple servers, which can help to improve the scalability of the application. A firewall controls access to the application, which can help to protect it from unauthorized access.

NEW QUESTION 796
A systems administrator is concerned about having two virtual database servers on the same host. Which of the following should be configured?

A.    Regions.
B.    Anti-affinity.
C.    Oversubscription.
D.    Container.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Anti-affinity is a policy that prevents two or more virtual machines from being placed on the same host. This is useful for ensuring that critical applications are not hosted on the same host, which could lead to downtime if the host fails.

NEW QUESTION 797
A systems administrator has verified that a physical switchport that is connected to a virtualization host is using all available bandwidth. Which of the following would BEST address this issue?

A.    Port mirroring.
B.    Link aggregation.
C.    Spanning tree.
D.    Microsegmentation.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Using the orchestrator’s secret manager (e.g., Kubernetes Secrets, Docker Swarm Secrets) is the most secure way to store sensitive information such as credentials for a containerized application. This method ensures that secrets are stored securely, encrypted at rest, and can be accessed only by authorized containers. Additionally, it simplifies the management of credentials, as they are centrally managed and can be updated without modifying the container image or the application code.

NEW QUESTION 798
A piece of software applies licensing fees on a socket-based model. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when attempting to calculate the licensing costs for this software?

A.    The amount of memory in the server.
B.    The number of CPUs in the server.
C.    The type of cloud in which the software is deployed.
D.    The number of customers who will be using the software.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A socket-based licensing model means that the software is licensed per CPU socket. So, the most important consideration when calculating the licensing costs is the number of CPUs in the server.

NEW QUESTION 799
A cloud administrator is evaluating a solution that will limit access to authorized individuals. The solution also needs to ensure the system that connects to the environment meets patching, antivirus and configuration requirements. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet these requirements?

A.    NAC
B.    EDR
C.    IDS
D.    HIPS

Answer: B
Explanation:
NAC (Network Access Control) is a solution in which you define conditions that need to be fulfilled for device to access the network. Those conditions could be OS, OS version, Antivirus.

NEW QUESTION 800
Over the last couple of years, the growth of a company has required a more complex DNS and DHCP environment. Which of the following should a systems administration team implement as an appropriate solution to simplify management?

A.    IPAM
B.    DoH
C.    VLAN
D.    SDN

Answer: A
Explanation:
IPAM stands for IP address management. It is a system that helps to manage IP addresses in a network. IPAM can help to simplify the management of DNS and DHCP by providing a central repository for IP address information. This can help to reduce errors and improve efficiency.

NEW QUESTION 801
A systems administrator needs to modify the replication factors of an automated application container from 3 to 5. Which of the following file types should the systems administrator modify on the master controller?

A.    .yaml
B.    .txt
C.    .conf
D.    .etcd

Answer: A
Explanation:
A YAML file is a human-readable data serialization format. It is often used to configure applications and services. In Kubernetes, the replication factor of an automated application container is defined in the YAML file for the application.

NEW QUESTION 802
An organization is conducting a performance test of a public application. The following actions have already been completed:
– The baseline performance has been established.
– A load test has passed.
– A benchmark report has been generated.
Which of the following needs to be done to conclude the performance test?

A.    Verify the application works well under an unexpected volume of requests.
B.    Assess the application against vulnerabilities and/or misconfiguration exploitation.
C.    Test how well the application can resist a DDoS attack.
D.    Conduct a test with the end users and collect feedback.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The purpose of a performance test is to assess the performance of an application under a variety of conditions. The goal is to identify any potential bottlenecks or performance issues that could impact the user experience.

NEW QUESTION 803
Audit and system logs are being forwarded to a syslog solution. An administrator observes that two application servers have not generated any logs for a period of three days, while others continue to send logs normally. Which of the following BEST explains what is occurring?

A.    There is a configuration failure in the syslog solution.
B.    The application servers were migrated to the cloud as IaaS instances.
C.    The application administrators have not performed any activity in those servers.
D.    There is a local firewall policy restriction on the syslog server.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Syslog is a standard protocol for sending logs from a server to a centralized logging server. The syslog server is typically configured to accept logs from all servers on the network. If two application servers have not generated any logs for a period of three days, while others continue to send logs normally, the most likely explanation is that there is a local firewall policy restriction on the syslog server that is blocking the logs from the two application servers.

NEW QUESTION 804
A cloud administrator needs to control the connections between a group of web servers and database servers as part of the financial application security review. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A.    Create a directory security group.
B.    Create a resource group.
C.    Create separate VLANs.
D.    Create a network security group.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A network security group (NSG) is a collection of security rules that control the inbound and outbound traffic for a group of network interfaces. By creating an NSG that allows only connections between the web servers and database servers, the cloud administrator can control the connections between the two groups of servers and improve the security of the financial application.

NEW QUESTION 805
A large pharmaceutical company needs to ensure it is in compliance with the following requirements:
– An application must run on its own virtual machine.
– The hardware the application is hosted on does not change.
Which of the following will BEST ensure compliance?

A.    Containers.
B.    A firewall.
C.    Affinity rules.
D.    Load balancers.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Affinity rules are a feature of virtualization that allow you to group virtual machines together so that they always run on the same host. This ensures that the application always runs on the same hardware, even if the host is rebooted or replaced.

NEW QUESTION 806
A company wants to utilize its private cloud for a new application. The private cloud resources can meet 75% of the application’s resource requirements. Which of the following scaling techniques can the cloud administrator implement to accommodate 100% of the application’s requirements?

A.    Horizontal.
B.    Vertical.
C.    Cloud bursting.
D.    Autoscaling.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud bursting is a scaling technique that allows an organization to use public cloud resources to supplement its private cloud resources when demand exceeds the capacity of the private cloud. This allows the organization to meet 100% of the application’s resource requirements without having to overprovision the private cloud.

NEW QUESTION 807
A systems administrator is configuring a storage system for maximum performance and redundancy. Which of the following storage technologies should the administrator use to achieve this?

A.    RAID 5
B.    RAID 6
C.    RAID 10
D.    RAID 50

Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 10 is a hybrid RAID level that combines the features of RAID 0 and RAID 1. It provides both striping and mirroring, which gives it the best performance and redundancy of any RAID level. RAID 5 provides striping with parity, which offers good performance and redundancy. However, it does not provide as much redundancy as RAID 10. RAID 6 provides striping with double parity, which offers even better redundancy than RAID 5. However, it does not offer as much performance as RAID 10. RAID 50 is a striped array of RAID 5 arrays, which provides good performance and redundancy. However, it is not as efficient as RAID 10.

NEW QUESTION 808
A company is performing a DR drill and is looking to validate its documentation. Which of the following metrics will determine the service recovery duration?

A.    MTTF
B.    SLA
C.    RTO
D.    RPO

Answer: C
Explanation:
RTO stands for Recovery Time Objective. It is the maximum amount of time that an organization can tolerate for a service to be unavailable before it begins to incur unacceptable losses.

NEW QUESTION 809
A company is migrating workloads from on premises to the cloud and would like to establish a connection between the entire data center and the cloud environment. Which of the following VPN configurations would accomplish this task?

A.    site-to-site
B.    slient-to-site
C.    point-to-site
D.    point-to-point

Answer: A
Explanation:
A site-to-site VPN is a connection between two networks, such as an on-premises data center and a cloud environment. It is the most common type of VPN and is used to securely connect two networks over the public internet.

NEW QUESTION 810
A product-based company wants to transition to a method that provides the capability to enhance the product seamlessly and keep the development iterations to a shorter time frame. Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements?

A.    Implement a secret management solution.
B.    Create autoscaling capabilities.
C.    Develop CI/CD tools.
D.    Deploy a CMDB tool.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Continuous Integration and Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) is a software development approach that aims to enhance the development process, ensure quicker iterations, and provide seamless enhancement of products. With CI/CD, code changes are automatically integrated, tested, and deployed to production environments, reducing the time it takes to deliver updates and enhancements to the product.

NEW QUESTION 811
A company is using an IaaS environment. Which of the following licensing models would BEST suit the organization from a financial perspective to implement scaling?

A.    Subscription.
B.    Volume-based.
C.    Per user.
D.    Socket-based.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A volume-based licensing model charges the organization based on the amount of resources that they use. This is the best option for organizations that need to scale their IaaS environment, as they only pay for the resources that they use.

NEW QUESTION 812
A cloud security engineer needs to ensure authentication to the cloud provider console is secure. Which of the following would BEST achieve this objective?

A.    Require the user’s source IP to be an RFC1918 address.
B.    Require the password to contain uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols.
C.    Require the use of a password and a physical token.
D.    Require the password to be ten characters long.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A physical token is a small device that generates a one-time password (OTP) that is used in conjunction with a password to authenticate to a system. This makes it much more difficult for an attacker to gain unauthorized access to the cloud provider console, even if they have the user’s password.

NEW QUESTION 813
A cloud administrator has deployed a website and needs to improve the site security to meet requirements. The website architecture is designed to have a DBaaS in the back end and autoscaling instances in the front end using a load balancer to distribute the request. Which of the following will the cloud administrator MOST likely use?

A.    An API gateway.
B.    An IPS/IDS.
C.    A reverse proxy.
D.    A WAF.

Answer: D
Explanation:
– A WAF can protect web applications from common web-based attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Since the website has a DBaaS backend, a WAF can help protect the database from SQL injection attacks. Additionally, since the website architecture is designed to use autoscaling instances in the front end with a load balancer, a WAF can help protect each instance from web-based attacks.
– An API gateway is used to manage API traffic, while an IPS/IDS (Intrusion Prevention System/Intrusion Detection System) is used to detect and prevent network attacks. A reverse proxy is used to distribute client requests across multiple servers, while also providing an additional layer of security. However, none of these are as well suited as a WAF for protecting web applications from web-based attacks.

NEW QUESTION 814
An administrator manages a file server that has a lot of users accessing and creating many files. As a result, the storage consumption is growing quickly. Which of the following would BEST control storage usage?

A.    Compression.
B.    File permissions.
C.    User quotas.
D.    Access policies.

Answer: C
Explanation:
User quotas are limits on the amount of storage space that a user can use on a file server. This can help to control storage usage by preventing users from creating too many files or storing too much data on the file server.

NEW QUESTION 815
A cloud administrator is reviewing the current private cloud and public law environment, and is building an optimization plan. Portability is of great concern for the administrator so resources can be easily moved from one environment to another. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.    Serverless
B.    CDN
C.    Containers
D.    Deduplication

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 816
A cloud administrator is configuring several security appliances hosted in the private IaaS environment to forward the logs to a central log aggregation solution using syslog. Which of the following firewall rules should the administrator add to allow the web servers to connect to the central log collector?

A.    Allow UDP 161 outbound from the web servers to the log collector.
B.    Allow TCP 514 outbound from the web servers to the log collector.
C.    Allow UDP 161 inbound from the log collector to the web servers.
D.    Allow TCP 514 inbound from the log collector to the web servers.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Syslog uses port 514 for communication, and the web servers are sending logs to the central log collector. Therefore, the firewall rule should allow outbound traffic from the web servers to the log collector on TCP port 514.

NEW QUESTION 817
A company has two identical environments (X and Y) running its core business application. As part of an upgrade, the X environment is patched/upgraded and tested while the Y environment is still serving the consumer workloads. Upon successful testing of the X environment, all workload is sent to this environment, and the Y environment is then upgraded before both environments start to manage the workloads. Which of the following upgrade methods is being used?

A.    Active-passive.
B.    Canary.
C.    Development/production.
D.    Blue-green.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The upgrade method used in this scenario is the “Blue-green” deployment.

NEW QUESTION 818
A systems administrator received an email from a cloud provider stating that storage is 80% full on the volume that stores VDI desktops. Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to mitigate the situation?

A.    Deduplication.
B.    Compression.
C.    Replication.
D.    Storage migration.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Deduplication is the process of identifying and removing duplicate data. This can free up a significant amount of storage space, especially on volumes that store large amounts of data that is frequently duplicated.

NEW QUESTION 819
During a security incident, an IaaS compute instance is detected to send traffic to a host related to cryptocurrency mining. The security analyst handling the incident determines the scope of the incident is limited to that particular instance. Which of the following should the security analyst do NEXT?

A.    Isolate the instance from the network into quarantine.
B.    Perform a memory acquisition in the affected instance.
C.    Create a snapshot of the volumes attached to the instance.
D.    Replace the instance with another from the baseline.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The first step in any security incident response is to isolate the affected system from the network. This will prevent the attacker from further compromising the system or spreading the attack to other systems. Once the instance has been isolated, the security analyst can perform a memory acquisition to collect evidence of the attack. This can be done using a variety of tools, such as a live memory acquisition tool or a post-mortem memory acquisition tool. The security analyst can also create a snapshot of the volumes attached to the instance. This will allow the analyst to restore the instance to a clean state if necessary. Replacing the instance with another from the baseline is not necessary at this stage. However, it may be necessary if the attacker has been able to compromise the instance’s root account or other critical systems. Therefore, the next step that the security analyst should take is to isolate the instance from the network into quarantine.

NEW QUESTION 820
A cloud administrator is responsible for managing a VDI environment that provides end users with access to limited applications. Which of the following should the administrator make changes to when a new application needs to be provided?

A.    Application security policy.
B.    Application whitelisting policy.
C.    Application hardening policy.
D.    Application testing policy.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Application whitelisting is a security policy that allows only approved applications to run on a system. This helps to prevent unauthorized applications from being installed and running on the system. When a new application needs to be provided to end users in a VDI environment, the cloud administrator should add the application to the application whitelisting policy. This will ensure that the application is only allowed to run on the VDI environment and that unauthorized applications are prevented from running.

NEW QUESTION 821
A cloud administrator needs to deploy a security virtual appliance in a private cloud environment, but this appliance will not be part of the standard catalog of items for other users to request. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this task?

A.    Create an empty VM, import the hard disk of the virtual appliance, and configure the CPU and memory.
B.    Acquire the build scripts from the vendor and recreate the appliance using the baseline templates.
C.    Import the virtual appliance into the environment and deploy it as a VM.
D.    Convert the virtual appliance to a template and deploy a new VM using the template.

Answer: D
Explanation:
This is because converting the virtual appliance to a template will create a reusable asset that can be easily deployed whenever needed. The template will include all of the settings and configurations of the virtual appliance, so there is no need to manually recreate the appliance each time.

NEW QUESTION 822
A company has a web application that is accessed around the world. An administrator has been notified of performance issues regarding the application. Which of the following will BEST improve performance?

A.    IPAM
B.    SDN
C.    CDN
D.    VPN

Answer: C
Explanation:
A content delivery network (CDN) is a system of servers that are deployed in multiple locations around the world. When a user requests a file from a CDN, the file is served from the server that is closest to the user. This can improve performance by reducing the distance that the file has to travel.

NEW QUESTION 823
A cloud administrator needs to verify domain ownership with a third party. The third party has provided a secret that must be added to the DNS server. Which of the following DNS records does the administrator need to update to include the secret?

A.    NS
B.    TXT
C.    AAAA
D.    SOA

Answer: B
Explanation:
TXT (text) Record‍: allows administrators to add limited human and machine-readable notes and can be used for things such as email validation, site, and ownership verification, framework policies, etc., and doesn’t require specific formatting.

NEW QUESTION 824
Different healthcare organizations have agreed to collaborate and build a cloud infrastructure that should minimize compliance costs and provide a high degree of security and privacy, as per regulatory requirements. This is an example of a ____.

A.    private cloud
B.    community cloud
C.    hybrid cloud
D.    public cloud

Answer: B
Explanation:
A community cloud is a cloud computing infrastructure that is shared by a specific community of organizations, such as healthcare organizations. This type of cloud offers a high degree of security and privacy, as well as the ability to comply with regulatory requirements.

NEW QUESTION 825
A developer wants to use an environment that has two sets of servers, with one active and one passive at any time. When a new version of the application is ready, it will be installed to the passive servers, which will then become active. Which of the following environment types BEST describes these two sets of servers?

A.    Disaster recovery.
B.    Blue-green.
C.    Development.
D.    Staging.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 826
Which of the following are advantages of a public cloud? (Choose two.)

A.    Full control of hardware.
B.    Reduced monthly costs.
C.    Decreased network latency.
D.    Pay as you use.
E.    Availability of self-service.
F.    More secure data.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The advantages of a public cloud are:
– Reduced monthly costs: Public cloud providers offer a pay-as-you-go pricing model, which can help organizations save money on IT infrastructure costs.
– Availability of self-service: Public cloud providers offer self-service portals that allow organizations to provision and manage resources without the need for IT assistance.
– Pay as you use: Public cloud providers only charge for the resources that are used, which can help organizations save money on unused resources.
– Scalability: Public cloud providers offer scalable infrastructure that can be easily expanded to meet changing needs.
– Global reach: Public cloud providers have data centers located around the world, which can help organizations improve performance and availability for their applications.

NEW QUESTION 827
A cloud engineer recently used a deployment script template to implement changes on a cloud- hosted web application. The web application communicates with a managed database on the back end. The engineer later notices the web application is no longer receiving data from the managed database. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A.    Misconfiguration in the user permissions.
B.    Misconfiguration in the routing traffic.
C.    Misconfiguration in the network ACL.
D.    Misconfiguration in the firewall.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A network ACL (access control list) is a set of rules that control the traffic that is allowed to flow between networks or subnets. If the network ACL is misconfigured, it can prevent traffic from flowing between the web application and the managed database.

NEW QUESTION 828
A company is using an IaC deployment model to a public cloud IaaS. The automation runs partially and then fails to build a VM in the IaaS environment. Upon further assessment, the connectivity to the IaaS is confirmed. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of the failure? (Choose two.)

A.    Insufficient account balance.
B.    Network settings.
C.    Resource tagging.
D.    API request limits.
E.    Administrator access.
F.    Inadequate storage.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Network settings: If the network settings are incorrect, the automation may not be able to connect to the IaaS environment. This can happen if the IP addresses or ports are incorrect, or if the firewall is blocking traffic. API request limits: Each IaaS provider has limits on the number of API requests that can be made per second or per minute. If the automation is making too many requests, it may be throttled or blocked by the IaaS provider.

NEW QUESTION 829
……


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