PassLeader released the NEWEST CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam dumps recently! Both CS0-003 VCE dumps and CS0-003 PDF dumps are available on PassLeader, either CS0-003 VCE dumps or CS0-003 PDF dumps have the NEWEST CS0-003 exam questions in it, they will help you passing CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam easily! You can download the valid CS0-003 dumps VCE and PDF from PassLeader here: https://www.passleader.com/cs0-003.html (631 Q&As Dumps ~ Lab Simulations Available)
Also, previewing the NEWEST PassLeader CS0-003 dumps online for free on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/19YiiehD2Z4Gmm6lrKwpWGxe8YXyGhyvL
NEW QUESTION 581
Which of the following is the best authentication method to secure access to sensitive data?
A.   An assigned device that generates a randomized code for login.
B.   Biometrics and a device with a personalized code for login.
C.   Alphanumeric/special character username and passphrase for login.
D.   A one-time code received by email and push authorization for login.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Combining “something you are” (biometric) with “something you have” (a device-generated code) provides the strongest, multi-factor assurance against unauthorized access to sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION 582
A security analyst wants to implement new monitoring controls in order to find abnormal account activity for traveling employees. Which of the following techniques would deliver the expected results?
A.   Malicious command interpretation.
B.   Network monitoring.
C.   User behavior analysis.
D.   SSL inspection.
Answer: C
Explanation:
User behavior analysis (UBA) is the most effective method for detecting abnormal account activity. UBA uses machine learning and behavioral analytics to identify patterns in how users interact with systems. If an employee suddenly logs in from an unusual location or accesses resources outside of their normal behavior, it raises an alert.
NEW QUESTION 583
A vulnerability scan shows several vulnerabilities. At the same time, a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10 has been identified on a web server. Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
A.   Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.
B.   Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.
C.   Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability.
D.   Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A CVSS 10 vulnerability represents a critical security risk, often leading to remote code execution or complete system compromise. Option A (Shut down the asset) is the best immediate containment action for preventing exploitation.
NEW QUESTION 584
A security manager reviews the permissions for the approved users of a shared folder and finds accounts that are not on the approved access list. While investigating an incident, a user discovers data discrepancies in the file. Which of the following best describes this activity?
A.   Filesystem anomaly.
B.   Illegal software.
C.   Unauthorized changes.
D.   Data exfiltration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The discovery of unapproved accounts accessing shared data, along with data discrepancies, strongly indicates unauthorized changes. Indicators of Unauthorized Changes:
– Unexpected user permissions found during audits.
– Modified or deleted data without proper documentation.
– Altered system or security configurations, allowing unintended access.
NEW QUESTION 585
The architecture team has been given a mandate to reduce the triage time of phishing incidents by 20%. Which of the following solutions will most likely help with this effort?
A.   Integrate a SOAR platform.
B.   Increase the budget to the security awareness program.
C.   Implement an EDR tool.
D.   Install a button in the mail clients to report phishing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) platforms help automate and orchestrate incident response tasks, including phishing triage. SOAR reduces triage time by automatically:
– Parsing phishing emails (checking headers, links, attachments).
– Running automated playbooks to check for known malicious indicators.
– Escalating real threats while dismissing false positives.
NEW QUESTION 586
A security analyst identifies a device on which different malware was detected multiple times, even after the systems were scanned and cleaned several times. Which of the following actions would be most effective to ensure the device does not have residual malware?
A.   Update the device and scan offline in safe mode.
B.   Replace the hard drive and reimage the device.
C.   Upgrade the device to the latest OS version.
D.   Download a secondary scanner and rescan the device.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If malware persists after multiple cleanings, the most effective action is to reimage the device from a known good baseline and replace the hard drive if there’s suspicion of low-level or boot-sector infection. This ensures complete removal of any hidden or persistent malware.
NEW QUESTION 587
The DevSecOps team is remediating a Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) issue on the company’s public-facing website. Which of the following is the best mitigation technique to address this issue?
A.   Place a Web Application Firewall (WAF) in front of the web server.
B.   Install a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) in front of the web server.
C.   Put a forward proxy in front of the web server.
D.   Implement MFA in front of the web server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) occurs when an attacker manipulates a web server to make unauthorized internal or external requests, often to access internal resources or exfiltrate data. A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is the best mitigation because it:
– Filters and blocks malicious requests before they reach the server.
– Prevents attackers from sending unauthorized requests to internal services.
– Can detect and block SSRF patterns in incoming traffic.
NEW QUESTION 588
An organization utilizes multiple vendors, each with its own portal that a security analyst must sign in to daily. Which of the following is the best solution for the organization to use to eliminate the need for multiple authentication credentials?
A.   API
B.   MFA
C.   SSO
D.   VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications without needing to re-enter credentials for each one. It reduces password fatigue, improves security, and streamlines authentication across vendor portals.
NEW QUESTION 589
Which of the following is the best way to provide realistic training for SOC analysts?
A.   Phishing assessments.
B.   OpenVAS.
C.   Attack simulation.
D.   SOAR.
E.   Honeypot.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Attack simulations provide realistic, hands-on scenarios that mirror true incidents, allowing SOC analysts to practice detection, analysis, and response skills under real-world pressure. These simulations are crucial for developing and reinforcing SOC procedures and incident workflows.
NEW QUESTION 590
An organization has implemented code into a production environment. During a routine test, a penetration tester found that some of the code had a backdoor implemented, causing a developer to make changes outside of the change management windows. Which of the following is the best way to prevent this issue?
A.   SDLC training.
B.   Dynamic analysis.
C.   Debugging.
D.   Source code review.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Source code review is the best preventive measure to detect unauthorized or malicious code (such as backdoors) before deployment. It ensures changes are thoroughly examined and approved through proper change management processes.
NEW QUESTION 591
A security analyst has just received an incident ticket regarding a ransomware attack. Which of the following would most likely help an analyst properly triage the ticket?
A.   Incident response plan.
B.   Lessons learned.
C.   Playbook.
D.   Tabletop exercise.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A playbook provides a step-by-step guide for handling specific types of incidents like ransomware, making it invaluable during triage. It outlines predefined procedures, aiding consistent and fast decision-making.
NEW QUESTION 592
When undertaking a cloud migration of multiple SaaS applications, an organization’s systems administrators struggled with the complexity of extending identity and access management to cloud-based assets. Which of the following service models would have reduced the complexity of this project?
A.   OpenID
B.   SDN
C.   ZTNA
D.   SWG
Answer: A
Explanation:
OpenID is an authentication protocol that simplifies identity and access management (IAM) by enabling users to use a single set of credentials to access multiple cloud-based SaaS applications. It reduces the complexity of managing multiple credentials and extends IAM to cloud-based assets effectively, making it an ideal solution for this scenario.
NEW QUESTION 593
An organization performs software assurance activities and reviews some web framework code that uses exploitable jquery modules. Which of the following tools or techniques should the organization use to help identify these issues?
A.   Security Content Automation Protocol.
B.   Application fuzzing.
C.   Common weakness enumeration.
D.   Static analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Static analysis inspects source code or binaries without executing the program, helping identify insecure coding patterns like the use of exploitable jQuery modules. It’s ideal for detecting vulnerabilities early in the software development lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION 594
An organization is preparing for a disaster recovery exercise. Which of the following actions should be implemented first?
A.   Gather all internal stakeholders and review the actions according to the defined incident playbook.
B.   Coordinate the supporting staff for the recovery process to ensure availability at the recovery site.
C.   Ensure that the vendor for the disaster recovery site is scheduled to support the recovery.
D.   Identify a business-critical system and test by failing over to the disaster recovery location.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before executing any disaster recovery actions, it is essential to review the incident response and disaster recovery plan with stakeholders. This ensures everyone understands their roles and the process, minimizing errors during the exercise.
NEW QUESTION 595
An analyst wants to detect outdated software packages on a server. Which of the following methodologies will achieve this objective?
A.   Data loss prevention.
B.   Configuration management.
C.   Common vulnerabilities and exposures.
D.   Credentialed scanning.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Credentialed scanning uses valid system credentials to access and inspect software versions installed on a server, allowing accurate detection of outdated or vulnerable packages.
NEW QUESTION 596
A systems administrator receives several reports about emails containing phishing links. The hosting domain is always different, but the URL follows a specific pattern of characters. Which of the following is the best way for the administrator to find more messages that were not reported?
A.   Search email logs for a regular expression.
B.   Open a support ticket with the email hosting provider.
C.   Send a memo to all staff asking them to report suspicious emails.
D.   Query firewall logs for any traffic with a suspicious website.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using a regular expression allows the administrator to search email logs for patterns in URLs, even when the domain changes. This is the most effective method for identifying unreported phishing emails that follow a consistent format.
NEW QUESTION 597
A company runs a website that allows public posts. Recently, some users report that when visiting the website, pop-ups appear asking the users for their credentials. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A.   Rootkit.
B.   SQL injection.
C.   CSRF.
D.   XSS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) allows attackers to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by others. In this case, the pop-ups asking for credentials are likely the result of a script injected into a public post, a classic sign of XSS.
NEW QUESTION 598
A security manager has decided to form a special group of analysts who participate in both penetration testing and defending the company’s network infrastructure during exercises. Which of the following teams should the group form in order to achieve this goal?
A.   Blue team.
B.   Purple team.
C.   Red team.
D.   Green team.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Purple team combines the offensive tactics of a Red team (attackers) with the defensive strategies of a Blue team (defenders). This collaboration improves threat detection and response by ensuring both perspectives are integrated during exercises.
NEW QUESTION 599
An e-commerce organization recently experienced a cyberattack. During a lessons learned meeting, a cybersecurity analyst requests that the RTO is prioritized. Which of the following is the greatest concern?
A.   Integrity
B.   Availability
C.   Non-repudiation
D.   Confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prioritizing the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) focuses on how quickly services must be restored after an incident. This directly relates to availability, ensuring that systems and services are accessible to users within an acceptable time frame.
NEW QUESTION 600
After several tabletop exercises, the cybersecurity team is underperforming against MTTR and MTTD. Which of the following would help the team achieve improved performance?
A.   Alert volume.
B.   Impact analysis.
C.   Lessons learned.
D.   Compensating controls.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Conducting lessons learned after tabletop exercises helps identify gaps in processes, tools, and communication. This feedback loop enables the team to refine response procedures, improving both Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) and Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) in future incidents.
NEW QUESTION 601
An IDS is triggered during after-hours operations. The indicator records an abnormal amount of SYN requests being sent to port 21 from numerous external systems. A security analyst reports this information to the IR team for further investigation. Which of the following best describes this incident?
A.   A sniff attack through the DNS port.
B.   A buffer overflow attack through the Telnet port.
C.   A reconnaissance attack through the SSH port.
D.   A DDoS attack through the FTP port.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Port 21 is used for FTP. An abnormal number of SYN requests from many external systems indicates a SYN flood, a type of Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack targeting the FTP service to overwhelm the server and disrupt availability.
NEW QUESTION 602
A security analyst notices multiple attempts of the same exploit being made on the perimeter network. The behavioral patterns indicate that a TCP SYN flood attack has been initiated, followed by a port scan of the company’s public IP range. No other attacks are being performed from the actor’s source IP address. All of the SYN flood attempts were thwarted by the firewall’s stateful packet inspection engine. Which of the following is the most likely type of threat actor in this scenario?
A.   Nation-state.
B.   Script kiddie.
C.   Advanced persistent threat.
D.   Organized crime.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The attacker’s behavior – launching a basic SYN flood followed by a simple port scan using readily available tools – matches the hallmark of a low-skill actor experimenting with automated scripts rather than a stealthy, goal-driven campaign. A script kiddie typically tries generic DoS and scanning tools without further sophisticated tradecraft.
NEW QUESTION 603
Which of the following is best suited for determining the methods of an adversary?
A.   ОWASP
B.   Cyber Kill Chain
C.   MITRE ATT&CK
D.   Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is expressly designed to catalog and map the tactics, techniques, and procedures (i.e. the methods) that adversaries use across all phases of an attack. It provides a detailed framework for identifying exactly how attackers operate, making it the go-to model for understanding adversary methods.
NEW QUESTION 604
Which of the following explains the reason a security analyst would map an attack route?
A.   To find critical paths that can be used to stop an adversary from advancing.
B.   To create an inventory of all IT assets to import into a database.
C.   To operationalize intelligence gathered from a previous step in the investigation.
D.   To categorize the tactics according to the MITRE ATT&CK framework.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mapping the attack route pinpoints the most likely lateral-movement and escalation paths, letting defenders harden or monitor those choke points to disrupt the adversary’s progress.
NEW QUESTION 605
Which of the following does a security policy do?
A.   Establishes a cost model for security activity.
B.   Identifies and clarifies security goals and objectives.
C.   Enables management to define system access rules.
D.   Allows management to define system recovery requirements.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A security policy provides the high-level direction from leadership by defining the organization’s security goals and objectives. It does not dive into cost models, specific access controls, or recovery procedures – that detail is reserved for standards, guidelines, and procedures.
NEW QUESTION 606
Which of the following threat-hunting concepts is most concerned with identifying the behaviors of the bad actor?
A.   Threat intelligence sharing.
B.   Indicators of compromise.
C.   Insider threat analysis.
D.   Tactics, techniques, and procedures.
Answer: B
Explanation:
TTPs focus on the characteristic behaviors and methods adversaries use during an attack, making them central to understanding and hunting for malicious activity.
NEW QUESTION 607
Which of the following best describes the benefit of implementing a PAM solution?
A.   Measuring and validating the integrity of the database.
B.   Controlling and monitoring the use of administrative accounts.
C.   Storing and protecting PKI certificate private keys.
D.   Configuring and enforcing password complexity requirements.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A PAM solution centralizes management of elevated credentials, enforces least-privilege access, and provides session logging and monitoring for all administrative activities, ensuring that privileged use is both controlled and auditable.
NEW QUESTION 608
……
Welcome to choose PassLeader CS0-003 dumps for 100% passing CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam: https://www.passleader.com/cs0-003.html (631 Q&As VCE Dumps and PDF Dumps ~ Lab Simulations Available)
Also, previewing the NEWEST PassLeader CS0-003 dumps online for free on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/19YiiehD2Z4Gmm6lrKwpWGxe8YXyGhyvL