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NEW QUESTION 261
A Chief Information Security Officer is concerned about the operational impact of ransomware. In the event of a ransomware attack, the business requires the integrity of the data to remain intact and an RPO of less than one hour. Which of the following storage strategies best satisfies the business requirements?
A. Full disk encryption.
B. Remote journaling.
C. Immutable.
D. RAID 10.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Remote journaling continuously sends log updates to a remote system, ensuring near-real-time backup and an RPO (Recovery Point Objective) under one hour.
NEW QUESTION 262
Previously intercepted communications must remain secure even if a current encryption key is compromised in the future. Which of the following best supports this requirement?
A. Tokenization.
B. Key stretching.
C. Forward secrecy.
D. Simultaneous authentication of equals.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Forward secrecy (FS) ensures that past encrypted data remains secure even if encryption keys are compromised in the future. It generates ephemeral session keys that are not reused.
NEW QUESTION 263
A security engineer is assisting a DevOps team that has the following requirements for container images:
– Ensure container images are hashed and use version controls.
– Ensure container images are up to date and scanned for vulnerabilities.
Which of the following should the security engineer do to meet these requirements?
A. Enable clusters on the container image and configure the mesh with ACLs.
B. Enable new security and quality checks within a CI/CD pipeline.
C. Enable audits on the container image and monitor for configuration changes.
D. Enable pulling of the container image from the vendor repository and deploy directly to operations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Implementing security and quality checks in a CI/CD pipeline ensures that:
– Container images are scanned for vulnerabilities before deployment.
– Version control is enforced, preventing unauthorized changes.
– Hashes validate image integrity.
NEW QUESTION 264
During a vulnerability assessment, a scan reveals the following finding:
Windows Server 2016 Missing hotfix KB87728 – CVSS 3.1 Score: 8.1 [High] – Affected host 172.16.15.2
Later in the review process, the remediation team marks the finding as a false positive. Which of the following is the best way to avoid this issue on future scans?
A. Getting an up-to-date list of assets from the CMDB.
B. Performing an authenticated scan on the servers.
C. Configuring the sensor with an advanced policy for fingerprinting servers.
D. Coordinating the scan execution with the remediation team early in the process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Authenticated scans allow the scanner to verify installed patches and configurations, reducing false positives.
NEW QUESTION 265
A company that uses several cloud applications wants to properly identify:
– All the devices potentially affected by a given vulnerability.
– All the internal servers utilizing the same physical switch.
– The number of endpoints using a particular operating system.
Which of the following is the best way to meet the requirements?
A. SBoM
B. CASB
C. GRC
D. CMDB
Answer: D
Explanation:
CMDB (Configuration Management Database): Tracks assets, configurations, and relationships (e.g., switches, OS versions), meeting all requirements.
NEW QUESTION 266
Employees use their badges to track the number of hours they work. The badge readers cannot be upgraded due to facility constraints. The software for the badge readers uses a legacy platform and requires connectivity to the enterprise resource planning solution. Which of the following is the best to ensure the security of the badge readers?
A. Segmentation.
B. Vulnerability scans.
C. Anti-malware.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Segmentation is the best option to ensure the security of legacy badge readers that cannot be upgraded. Segmentation isolates the legacy devices on a separate network segment to minimize their exposure to potential threats. This approach reduces the attack surface by preventing unauthorized access from other parts of the network while still allowing necessary connectivity to the enterprise resource planning (ERP) system.
NEW QUESTION 267
A security engineer must resolve a vulnerability in a deprecated version of Python for a custom- developed flight simulation application that is monitored and controlled remotely. The source code is proprietary and built with Python functions running on the Ubuntu operating system. Version control is not enabled for the application in development or production. However, the application must remain online in the production environment using built-in features. Which of the following solutions best reduces the attack surface of these issues and meets the outlined requirements?
A. Configure code-signing within the CI/CD pipeline.
Update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment.
Deploy the solution to production.
B. Enable branch protection in the GitHub repository.
Update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment.
Deploy the solution to production.
C. Use an NFS network share.
Update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment.
Deploy the solution to production.
D. Configure version designation within the Python interpreter.
Update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment.
Deploy the solution to production.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Code-signing within the CI/CD pipeline ensures that only verified and signed code is deployed, mitigating the risk of supply chain attacks. Updating Python with aptitude and updating modules with pip ensures vulnerabilities are patched. Deploying the solution to production after testing maintains application availability while securing the development lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION 268
A systems engineer is configuring SSO for a business that will be using SaaS applications for its remote-only workforce. Privileged actions in SaaS applications must be allowed only from corporate mobile devices that meet minimum security requirements, but BYOD must also be permitted for other activity. Which of the following would best meet this objective?
A. Block any connections from outside the business’s network security boundary.
B. Install machine certificates on corporate devices and perform checks against the clients.
C. Configure device attestations and continuous authorization controls.
D. Deploy application protection policies using a corporate, cloud-based MDM solution.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Device attestation ensures that only corporate-approved devices can perform privileged actions in SaaS applications. Continuous authorization monitors ongoing device compliance, dynamically adjusting permissions based on security posture.
NEW QUESTION 269
A company wants to modify its process to comply with privacy requirements after an incident involving PII data in a development environment. In order to perform functionality tests, the QA team still needs to use valid data in the specified format. Which of the following best addresses the risk without impacting the development life cycle?
A. Encrypting the data before moving into the QA environment.
B. Truncating the data to make it not personally identifiable.
C. Using a large language model to generate synthetic data.
D. Utilizing tokenization for sensitive fields.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data (e.g., PII) with non-sensitive placeholders while maintaining format consistency, ensuring compliance without disrupting testing. This method is commonly used for PCI-DSS and GDPR compliance while preserving data structure for functional tests.
NEW QUESTION 270
A security architect must make sure that the least number of services as possible is exposed in order to limit an adversary’s ability to access the systems. Which of the following should the architect do first?
A. Enforce Secure Boot.
B. Perform attack surface reduction.
C. Disable third-party integrations.
D. Limit access to the systems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Attack surface reduction focuses on minimizing unnecessary services, open ports, and vulnerabilities, reducing the exposure to potential adversaries. This aligns with zero trust and least privilege principles.
NEW QUESTION 271
A company must build and deploy security standards for all servers in its on-premises and cloud environments based on hardening guidelines. Which of the following solutions most likely meets the requirements?
A. Develop a security baseline to integrate with the vulnerability scanning platform to alert about any server not aligned with the new security standards.
B. Create baseline images for each OS in use, following security standards, and integrate the images into the patching and deployment solution.
C. Build all new images from scratch, installing only needed applications and modules in accordance with the new security standards.
D. Run a script during server deployment to remove all the unnecessary applications as part of provisioning.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating secure baseline images ensures consistent, repeatable deployment aligned with hardening standards. These images can be used across on-premises and cloud environments, ensuring compliance and reducing misconfigurations.
NEW QUESTION 272
A threat hunter is identifying potentially malicious activity associated with an APT. When the threat hunter runs queries against the SIEM platform with a date range of 60 to 90 days ago, the involved account seems to be typically most active in the evenings. When the threat hunter reruns the same query with a date range of 5 to 30 days ago, the account appears to be most active in the early morning. Which of the following techniques is the threat hunter using to better understand the data?
A. TTP-based inquiries.
B. User behavior analytics.
C. Adversary emulation.
D. OSINT analysis activities.
Answer: B
Explanation:
User behavior analytics (UBA) detects anomalous activity by analyzing historical patterns and comparing them to recent behavior. The time shift in account activity suggests potential compromise or misuse.
NEW QUESTION 273
An organization recently implemented a new email DLP solution. Emails sent from company email addresses to matching personal email addresses generated a large number of alerts, but the content of the emails did not include company data. The security team needs to reduce the number of emails sent without blocking all emails to common personal email services. Which of the following should the security team implement first?
A. Automatically quarantine outgoing email.
B. Create an acceptable use policy.
C. Enforce email encryption standards.
D. Perform security awareness training focusing on phishing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy (AUP) defines what is considered appropriate use of corporate email and prevents unnecessary emails to personal accounts. This helps in reducing false DLP alerts while maintaining compliance.
NEW QUESTION 274
An organization that performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution. Given the following business requirements:
– The backup solution must reduce the risk of potential backup compromise.
– The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
– The time to restore from backups is less important than backup data integrity.
Multiple copies of production data must be maintained. Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirements?
A. Creating a secondary, immutable database and adding live data on a continuous basis.
B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync.
C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases to ensure real-time transactions are mirrored.
D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases to ensure data cannot be changed unintentionally.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An immutable database prevents modifications or deletions, ensuring resilience against ransomware while maintaining multiple copies of data.
NEW QUESTION 275
A company migrating to a remote work model requires that company-owned devices connect to a VPN before logging in to the device itself. The VPN gateway requires that a specific key extension is deployed to the machine certificates in the internal PKI. Which of the following best explains this requirement?
A. The certificate is an additional factor to meet regulatory MFA requirements for VPN access.
B. The VPN client selected the certificate with the correct key usage without user interaction.
C. The internal PKI certificate deployment allows for Wi-Fi connectivity before logging in to other systems.
D. The server connection uses SSL VPN, which uses certificates for secure communication.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This scenario describes an enterprise VPN setup that requires machine authentication before a user logs in. The best explanation for this requirement is that the VPN client selects the appropriate certificate automatically based on the key extension in the machine certificate.
NEW QUESTION 276
An organization has noticed an increase in phishing campaigns utilizing typosquatting. A security analyst needs to enrich the data for commonly used domains against the domains used in phishing campaigns. The analyst uses a log forwarder to forward network logs to the SIEM. Which of the following would allow the security analyst to perform this analysis?
A. Use a cron job to regularly update and compare domains.
B. Create a parser that matches domains.
C. Develop a query that filters out all matching domain names.
D. Implement a dashboard on the SIEM that shows the percentage of traffic by domain.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question addresses how a security analyst can compare legitimate domains with typosquatted domains using a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system. A parser is a tool that extracts structured data from logs. In this case, a custom parser can identify domain names in network traffic logs and compare them to known typosquatted domains. This approach enables real-time detection of suspicious domains in SIEM.
NEW QUESTION 277
An organization determines existing business continuity practices are inadequate to support critical internal process dependencies during a contingency event. A compliance analyst wants the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to identify the level of residual risk that is acceptable to guide remediation activities. Which of the following does the CIO need to clarify?
A. Mitigation
B. Impact
C. Likelihood
D. Appetite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Residual risk is the amount of risk remaining after controls and mitigations have been applied. Risk appetite defines the level of risk an organization is willing to accept before taking additional actions. The CIO must clarify the organization’s “Risk Appetite” to determine how much residual risk is acceptable. If risk exceeds the appetite, additional security measures need to be implemented. This aligns with ISO 31000 and NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF).
NEW QUESTION 278
A company recently experienced a ransomware attack. Although the company performs systems and data backup on a schedule that aligns with its RPO (Recovery Point Objective) requirements, the backup administrator could not recover critical systems and data from its offline backups to meet the RPO. Eventually, the systems and data were restored with information that was six months outside of RPO requirements. Which of the following actions should the company take to reduce the risk of a similar attack?
A. Encrypt and label the backup tapes with the appropriate retention schedule before they are sent to the off-site location.
B. Implement a business continuity process that includes reverting manual business processes.
C. Perform regular disaster recovery testing of IT and non-IT systems and processes.
D. Carry out a tabletop exercise to update and verify the RACI matrix with IT and critical business functions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The key issue here is that backups were not recoverable within the required RPO timeframe. This means the organization did not properly test its backup and disaster recovery (DR) processes. To prevent this from happening again, regular disaster recovery testing is essential. Disaster recovery testing ensures that backups are functional and can meet business continuity needs. Frequent DR testing allows organizations to identify and fix gaps in recovery strategies. Regular testing ensures that recovery meets the RPO & RTO (Recovery Time Objective) requirements.
NEW QUESTION 279
A compliance officer is facilitating a business impact analysis (BIA) and wants business unit leaders to collect meaningful data. Several business unit leaders want more information about the types of data the officer needs. Which of the following data types would be the most beneficial for the compliance officer? (Choose three.)
A. Inventory details.
B. Applicable contract obligations.
C. Costs associated with downtime.
D. Network diagrams.
E. Contingency plans.
F. Critical processes.
Answer: BCF
Explanation:
A BIA assesses the effects of disruptions to an organization’s operations. It helps prioritize resources based on the potential impact of downtime, compliance issues, and critical processes.
– For option B: Many companies have legal and compliance obligations regarding downtime, availability, and SLAs. This information helps determine what risk levels are acceptable.
– For option C: BIA quantifies the financial impact of system failures. Knowing lost revenue, regulatory fines, and recovery costs helps in planning.
– For option F: Identifying core business processes allows an organization to prioritize recovery efforts and maintain operational continuity.
NEW QUESTION 280
During a recent security event, access from the non-production environment to the production environment enabled unauthorized users to:
– Install unapproved software.
– Make unplanned configuration changes.
During the investigation, the following findings were identified:
– Several new users were added in bulk by the IAM team.
– Additional firewalls and routers were recently added.
– Vulnerability assessments have been disabled for more than 30 days.
– The application allow list has not been modified in two weeks.
– Logs were unavailable for various types of traffic.
– Endpoints have not been patched in over ten days.
Which of the following actions would most likely need to be taken to ensure proper monitoring? (Choose three.)
A. Disable bulk user creations by the IAM team.
B. Extend log retention for all security and network devices to 180 days for all traffic.
C. Review the application allow list daily.
D. Routinely update all endpoints and network devices as soon as new patches/hot fixes are available.
E. Ensure all network and security devices are sending relevant data to the SIEM.
F. Configure firewall rules to only allow production-to-non-production traffic.
Answer: ADE
Explanation:
Unauthorized users gained access from non-production to production. IAM policies were weak, allowing bulk user creation. Vulnerability assessments were disabled, and patching was delayed. Logs were unavailable, making incident response difficult.
– For option A: Prevents unauthorized mass user account creation, which could be exploited by attackers.
– For option D: Patch management ensures vulnerabilities are not left open for attackers.
– For option E: Helps with real-time monitoring and detection of unauthorized activities.
NEW QUESTION 281
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