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NEW QUESTION 781
A penetration tester was able to gain unauthorized access to a hypervisor platform. Which of the following vulnerabilities was most likely exploited?
A. Cross-site scripting.
B. SQL injection.
C. Race condition.
D. VM escape.
Answer: D
Explanation:
VM escape occurs when an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine’s sandbox to interact directly with the underlying hypervisor, granting unauthorized access to the host platform. This is the vulnerability exploited when compromising a hypervisor.
NEW QUESTION 782
An attacker defaces a company’s website and refuses to relinquish control until the company removes specific harmful chemicals from its products. Which of the following best describes this type of threat actor?
A. Unskilled attacker.
B. Hacktivist.
C. Organized crime.
D. Espionage.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A hacktivist uses cyberattacks, such as website defacement, to advance a political or social agenda. In this case, the attacker’s demand to remove harmful chemicals reflects an ideological motive, characteristic of hacktivism.
NEW QUESTION 783
A company uses a cloud-based server for file storage and wants to ensure the security of its data in transit. Which of the following should the company use to secure this type of communication? (Choose two.)
A. TLS certificates.
B. WPA2 encryption.
C. HTTPS.
D. Virtual private network.
E. Encryption key management.
F. Digital signatures.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
– TLS certificates: TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the standard protocol for encrypting data in transit over networks. Certificates authenticate the server and establish a secure, encrypted channel.
– HTTPS: HTTPS is HTTP over TLS/SSL. It ensures that data sent between clients (like web browsers) and the cloud server is encrypted and protected from eavesdropping or tampering.
NEW QUESTION 784
An organization found gaps in its software development environment and is implementing compensating controls to better protect its systems from external threats. Which of the following would be most effective? (Choose two.)
A. Platform hardening.
B. Expanded logging.
C. Network segmentation.
D. Access control.
E. Data encryption.
F. Application allow list.
Answer: AF
Explanation:
Platform hardening locks down development hosts, removing unnecessary services and closing unused ports, so attackers have fewer vulnerabilities to exploit. An application allow list ensures only approved, vetted software can run in the environment, preventing malicious or untested code from executing.
NEW QUESTION 785
Which of the following is a qualitative approach to risk analysis?
A. Including the MTTR and MTBF as part of the risk assessment.
B. Tracking and documenting network risks using a risk register.
C. Assigning a level of high, medium, or low to the risk rating.
D. Using ALE and ARO to help determine whether a risk should be mitigated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A qualitative risk analysis uses descriptive scales (e.g., high, medium, low) to prioritize risks based on their likelihood and impact, rather than numeric calculations.
NEW QUESTION 786
Which of the following provides resilience by hosting critical VMs within different IaaS providers while being maintained by internal application owners?
A. Multicloud architectures.
B. SaaS provider diversity.
C. On-premises server load balancing.
D. Corporate-owned, off-site locations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
By distributing critical virtual machines across multiple IaaS providers, a multicloud architecture removes single points of failure and ensures continuity even if one provider experiences an outage, while allowing internal teams to maintain control over deployment and configuration.
NEW QUESTION 787
An organization keeps servers with confidential information in the same network as workstations. An attacker compromises a workstation and moves laterally to a server. Which of the following could have prevented the attacker from accessing the server?
A. Load balancers.
B. Security zones.
C. Virtual private networks.
D. Proxy servers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
By placing servers and workstations into separate security zones (network segments) with controlled access between them, the organization would prevent a compromised workstation from directly reaching the confidential servers. This isolation stops lateral movement without needing VPNs, proxies, or load balancers.
NEW QUESTION 788
An administrator needs to ensure all emails sent and received by a specific address are stored in a non-alterable format. Which of the following best describes this forensic concept?
A. E-discovery.
B. Acquisition.
C. Legal hold.
D. Chain of custody.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Acquisition refers to the process of capturing and preserving digital evidence in a forensically sound, non-alterable format (e.g., bit-for-bit imaging or write-once storage), ensuring the integrity of the emails for later analysis.
NEW QUESTION 789
A company recently purchased a new building that does not have an existing wireless or wired infrastructure. A network engineer at the company needs to determine the placement of the access points in the new building. Which of the following accurately describes the task the network engineer will be performing?
A. Heat map.
B. Internal assessment.
C. Corporate reconnaissance.
D. Site survey.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A site survey involves evaluating the physical environment, measuring building materials, interference sources, and coverage requirements, to determine optimal access-point placement.
NEW QUESTION 790
Which of the following should a systems administrator do after performing remediation activities?
A. Classify
B. Archive
C. Rescan
D. Isolate
Answer: C
Explanation:
After applying patches or other remediation steps, rescanning verifies that the vulnerabilities have been effectively resolved and ensures no residual issues remain.
NEW QUESTION 791
An organization wants to increase an application’s resiliency by configuring access to multiple servers in the organization’s geographically dispersed environment. Which of the following best describes this architecture?
A. Containerized.
B. Multitenant.
C. Load balanced.
D. Virtualized.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A load-balanced architecture distributes incoming application traffic across multiple servers, potentially in different geographic locations, to optimize resource use, improve response times, and provide redundancy if any single server fails.
NEW QUESTION 792
A user attempts to send an invoice to a customer. When the user follows up with the customer to see if the invoice was received, the customer informs the user that it went to the spam folder. The management team has asked the systems administrator to implement measures to reduce the likelihood of this happening again by implementing server authentication. Which of the following should the systems administrator implement?
A. SPF
B. DMARC
C. XDR
D. DNSSEC
Answer: A
Explanation:
SPF (Sender Policy Framework) lets the domain owner specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on its behalf. Publishing an SPF record in DNS helps recipient mail systems verify the sending server’s legitimacy, reducing the chance that legitimate messages are marked as spam.
NEW QUESTION 793
A database engineer needs sample customer data for testing purposes. Which of the following can prevent unauthorized viewing or disclosure of PII?
A. Masking
B. RBAC
C. Tokenization
D. Filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data masking replaces real PII with realistic but fictional values in non-production environments, ensuring testers can’t view or disclose actual sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION 794
A user sends an email that includes a digital signature for validation. Which of the following security concepts would ensure a user cannot deny they sent the email?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
A digital signature provides cryptographic proof of origin, preventing the sender from denying they authored and sent the email – this is the essence of non-repudiation.
NEW QUESTION 795
A company’s leadership team wants to ensure employees only print business-related documents on company printers. Which of the following documents should the company add this directive to?
A. Information security policy.
B. Data classification policy.
C. Business continuity plan.
D. Acceptable use policy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy defines permitted and prohibited activities for using organizational resources, such as specifying that company printers may only be used for business-related documents. This ensures employees understand and agree to the printing restriction.
NEW QUESTION 796
An employee receives from a vendor a marketing communication email that includes an attachment. When the employee opens the attachment, the employee’s screen displays odd text requesting payment in order to recover data. Within moments, a company-wide email is sent to employees requesting that employees disconnect their computers from the internet and shut them down. Which of the following describes this type of malware?
A. Trojan
B. Worm
C. Ransomware
D. Virus
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware encrypts a user’s files (displaying garbled text) and demands payment to restore access, matching the behavior described.
NEW QUESTION 797
Which of the following is a technical security control?
A. Security guard.
B. Policy.
C. Fence.
D. Firewall.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A firewall is a technical control enforced by hardware or software to monitor and filter network traffic, distinguishing it from physical (e.g., fence, security guard) or administrative (e.g., policy) controls.
NEW QUESTION 798
An organization decides that most employees will work remotely. The existing VPN solution does not have adequate bandwidth, and the content filtering proxy is on premises. Which of the following strategies will enable the business to securely achieve its objective while also being prepared to quickly scale for growth?
A. Integrate with an SASE platform, and deploy the agent to all laptops.
B. Purchase a larger internet circuit, and create a NAT policy for the proxy.
C. Purchase a SOAR solution to decrease response times for remote workers.
D. Install a secondary VPN and proxy at the disaster recovery site, and automate failover.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) solution delivers VPN, firewall, and content‐filtering functions from the cloud, eliminating on-premises bottlenecks and easily scaling as remote usage grows when agents are deployed to endpoints.
NEW QUESTION 799
Which of the following would help reduce alert fatigue?
A. Penetration testing.
B. Compensating controls.
C. Rule tuning.
D. Log aggregation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Adjusting and refining detection rules reduces false positives and irrelevant alerts, ensuring that security teams receive only meaningful notifications and thereby minimizing alert fatigue.
NEW QUESTION 800
Which of the following options most efficiently maintains a system state in the event of a system failure?
A. Hybrid cloud.
B. Cold site.
C. Full backup.
D. Load balancing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Full backup captures the entire system including the operating system, installed applications, system settings, and user data. This allows for complete system recovery to the exact previous state, which is critical after a failure. While system state backups focus only on critical OS components and configuration data (like boot files, registry, Active Directory), they do not include user data and applications. System state recovery is quicker, but less comprehensive and requires the original hardware and OS version to restore properly.
NEW QUESTION 801
During a SQL update of a database, a temporary field used as part of the update sequence was modified by an attacker before the update completed in order to allow access to the system. Which of the following best describes this type of vulnerability?
A. Race condition.
B. Memory injection.
C. Malicious update.
D. Side loading.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A race condition occurs when an attacker exploits the timing window between operations, modifying the temporary field before the update completes, to alter the intended logic and gain unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION 802
A company’s accounts payable clerk receives a message from a vendor asking to change their bank account before paying an invoice. The clerk makes the change and sends the payment to the new account. Days later, the clerk receives another message from the same vendor with a request for a missing payment to the original bank account. Which of the following has most likely occurred?
A. Phishing campaign.
B. Data exfiltration.
C. Pretext calling.
D. Business email compromise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attacker impersonated a trusted vendor via email to redirect funds to their own account, a hallmark of business email compromise. This social engineering tactic exploits legitimate business processes to fraudulently transfer money.
NEW QUESTION 803
A company’s accounts payable clerk receives a message from a vendor asking to change their bank account before paying an invoice. The clerk makes the change and sends the payment to the new account. Days later, the clerk receives another message from the same vendor with a request for a missing payment to the original bank account. Which of the following has most likely occurred?
A. Phishing campaign.
B. Data exfiltration.
C. Pretext calling.
D. Business email compromise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attacker impersonated a trusted vendor via email to redirect funds to their own account, a hallmark of business email compromise. This social engineering tactic exploits legitimate business processes to fraudulently transfer money.
NEW QUESTION 804
A vendor salesperson is a personal friend of a company’s Chief Financial Officer (CFO). The company recently made a large purchase from the vendor, which was directly approved by the CFO. Which of the following best describes this situation?
A. Rules of engagement.
B. Conflict of interest.
C. Due diligence.
D. Contractual impact.
E. Reputational damage.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When the CFO’s personal relationship with the vendor could improperly influence (or appear to influence) company purchasing decisions, it creates a conflict of interest. The CFO should disclose the relationship and recuse themselves from the approval process.
NEW QUESTION 805
The board of a company needs to tell the leadership team which activities are too risky to undertake during business operations. Which of the following risk management strategies does the board need to explain to the leadership team?
A. The company’s risk assessment.
B. The company’s risk acceptance.
C. The company’s risk register.
D. The company’s risk tolerance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk tolerance defines the threshold of risk the organization is willing to accept. Activities that exceed this threshold are deemed too risky to pursue during normal operations.
NEW QUESTION 806
A systems administrator wants to use a technical solution to explicitly define file permissions for the entire team. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. ACL
B. Monitoring
C. Isolation
D. HIPS
Answer: A
Explanation:
An Access Control List (ACL) is a technical mechanism that explicitly assigns read, write, and execute permissions to specific users or groups for each file, providing granular control over file access.
NEW QUESTION 807
A company is concerned with supply chain compromise of new servers and wants to limit this risk. Which of the following should the company review first?
A. Sanitization procedure.
B. Acquisition process.
C. Change management.
D. Asset tracking.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reviewing the acquisition process allows the company to vet vendors, enforce secure procurement controls, and verify hardware integrity before servers enter the environment, directly mitigating supply chain compromise risks.
NEW QUESTION 808
Which of the following control types involves restricting IP connectivity to a router’s web management interface to protect it from being exploited by a vulnerability?
A. Corrective
B. Physical
C. Preventive
D. Managerial
Answer: C
Explanation:
Restricting IP access to the router’s management interface proactively blocks unauthorized attempts to exploit vulnerabilities, making it a preventive control.
NEW QUESTION 809
Which of the following data types relates to data sovereignty?
A. Data classified as public in other countries.
B. Personally identifiable data while traveling.
C. Health data shared between doctors in other nations.
D. Data at rest outside of a country’s borders.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data sovereignty concerns the legal and regulatory requirements governing data where it physically resides. Storing data at rest outside a country’s borders subjects it to the foreign jurisdiction’s laws, making this the key data sovereignty issue.
NEW QUESTION 810
A software developer wishes to implement an application security technique that will provide assurance of the application’s integrity. Which of the following techniques will achieve this?
A. Secure cookies.
B. Input validation.
C. Static analysis.
D. Code signing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Code signing uses digital signatures to verify that an application’s binaries haven’t been altered since they were signed, providing cryptographic assurance of the software’s integrity.
NEW QUESTION 811
A penetration test reveals that users can easily access internal VLANs from the company’s guest Wi-Fi. Which of the following security principles would remediate this vulnerability by improving network authentication mechanisms?
A. VLAN ACLs.
B. Captive portal.
C. DNSSEC.
D. 802.1X.
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.1X enforces port-based authentication before assigning a device to a VLAN, ensuring only authorized users can join internal networks and preventing guests from accessing protected segments.
NEW QUESTION 812
A company recently set up a system for employees to access their files remotely. However, the IT team has noticed that some employees are using personal devices to access the system. Which of the following security techniques could help mitigate the risk of unauthorized connections by personal devices?
A. Multifactor Authentication
B. Conditional Access Policies
C. Cloud Access Security Broker
D. Data Loss Prevention
Answer: B
Explanation:
Conditional Access lets you enforce device-based requirements, such as requiring devices to be enrolled, compliant, or managed, before granting access. By blocking or limiting connections from unmanaged personal devices, it prevents unauthorized endpoints from reaching the company’s remote file system.
NEW QUESTION 813
Which of the following security controls is a company implementing by deploying HIPS? (Choose two.)
A. Directive
B. Preventive
C. Physical
D. Corrective
E. Compensating
F. Detective
Answer: BF
Explanation:
A host-based intrusion prevention system actively monitors and blocks malicious behavior on the endpoint (preventive control) while also alerting or logging suspicious events (detective control).
NEW QUESTION 814
Which of the following is the best physical security measure that prevents unauthorized vehicles from entering a data center while still allowing foot traffic?
A. Access control vestibules.
B. Fencing.
C. Video surveillance.
D. Retractable bollards.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Retractable bollards provide a strong physical barrier to stop unauthorized vehicles while remaining low enough (or lowered) to let pedestrians pass freely, making them ideal for controlling vehicle access without impeding foot traffic.
NEW QUESTION 815
Which of the following are the best methods for hardening end user devices? (Choose two.)
A. Full disk encryption.
B. Group-level permissions.
C. Account lockout.
D. Endpoint protection.
E. Proxy server.
F. Segmentation.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
Full disk encryption ensures that all data on the device remains confidential if the device is lost or stolen. Endpoint protection (antivirus/EDR) continuously defends against malware, exploits, and other active threats, directly hardening the device against attacks.
NEW QUESTION 816
Which of the following policies outlines what employees can and cannot do on company-issued devices?
A. Acceptable use.
B. Data classification.
C. Change management.
D. Business continuity.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy defines the permitted and prohibited behaviors for employees when using company-issued devices, ensuring clear guidelines on what activities are allowed.
NEW QUESTION 817
A developer receives this message when testing a new external website:
“This site cannot be reached.”
Which of the following logs would most likely help identify the root cause?
A. Firewall
B. IDS
C. Application
D. System
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a site is unreachable, the first step is to verify whether network traffic is being blocked. Firewall logs will show if connection attempts to the external site are being denied or dropped, pinpointing whether the firewall is preventing access.
NEW QUESTION 818
Which of the following methods to secure data is most often used to protect data in transit?
A. Encryption.
B. Obfuscation.
C. Permission restrictions.
D. Hashing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encryption transforms data into ciphertext before transmission, ensuring that intercepted information remains unreadable to unauthorized parties and thus securing data in transit.
NEW QUESTION 819
Which of the following does a user often agree to when logging in to a domain?
A. AUP
B. MAC
C. EULA
D. EAP
Answer: A
Explanation:
When users log in to a corporate domain, they’re typically presented with an acceptable use policy outlining the rules and responsibilities for system use before gaining access. This ensures they agree to organizational guidelines up front.
NEW QUESTION 820
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to enhance security capabilities to block PH from being emailed or downloaded to unapproved external media. Which of the following solutions will accomplish this goal?
A. Deploying DLP software on servers and endpoints.
B. Configuring servers and endpoints to use a centralized web proxy.
C. Implementing secure protocols on servers and endpoints.
D. Installing EDR software on servers and endpoints.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions inspect content in motion and at rest, across email, web uploads, removable media, and more, and enforce policies to block or quarantine protected health information (PHI) from being transmitted to unapproved destinations. By deploying DLP agents on both servers and endpoints, the organization gains granular control over where sensitive data can flow, effectively preventing PH from being emailed or copied to unauthorized external media.
NEW QUESTION 821
After a breach at a data processing center, an administrator receives a notification that administrative passwords were leaked online. Which of the following should be used to prevent this incident from occurring in the future?
A. Password management.
B. Password complexity.
C. Password policy.
D. Password vault.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A centralized password vault securely stores and manages privileged credentials, encrypting them at rest, controlling access, and enabling strong rotation policies, so administrative passwords are never exposed in plaintext and can’t be leaked online.
NEW QUESTION 822
A systems administrator has overwritten all of the supervisor’s permissions in order to perform malicious activities. Which of the following does this describe?
A. Shadow IT.
B. Unskilled attacker.
C. Insider threat.
D. Hacktivist.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An insider threat involves a trusted individual within the organization, such as a systems administrator, misusing their legitimate access to carry out malicious actions, like overwriting a supervisor’s permissions.
NEW QUESTION 823
Which of the following would best prepare a security team for a specific incident response scenario?
A. Situational awareness.
B. Risk assessment.
C. Root cause analysis.
D. Tabletop exercise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise walks the security team through a realistic incident scenario in a low-stakes environment, allowing them to practice roles, decisions, and coordination before a real event occurs.
NEW QUESTION 824
Which of the following would best ensure a controlled version release of a new software application?
A. Business continuity planning.
B. Quantified risk analysis.
C. Static code analysis.
D. Change management procedures.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Change management procedures establish formal processes for planning, approving, testing, and documenting software releases, ensuring new versions are deployed in a controlled, auditable manner.
NEW QUESTION 825
Several employees download a productivity program that is useful but also leaks contact information and corporate organizational structure details. Which of the following is the best way to prevent this issue?
A. Application allow list.
B. Workstation hardening.
C. Refusal of unsigned code.
D. IP blocklist.
E. Standard user accounts.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An application allow list ensures only approved software can be installed or run on corporate endpoints, blocking any unapproved programs that might leak sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION 826
The Chief Executive Officer has requested that a vendor conduct a penetration test without engaging the internal IT team to validate the company’s investment in security tools, awareness training, and SOC personnel. Which of the following penetration testing methods is most likely being used?
A. Unknown
B. Known
C. Integrated
D. Integrated
Answer: A
Explanation:
An “unknown” (black-box) test gives the testers no prior information or coordination with internal teams, mimicking an external attacker and validating defenses without internal assistance.
NEW QUESTION 827
A user receives an aggressive text from an unknown sender who is demanding money. Which of the following attacks is this an example of?
A. Impersonation
B. Typosquatting
C. Smishing
D. Scareware
Answer: C
Explanation:
Smishing is a form of phishing conducted via SMS or text messages. An unsolicited, threatening text demanding money exemplifies a smishing attack.
NEW QUESTION 828
Employees receive a text message containing a link to a web page that prompts the user to enter their ID and a work phone number. The text message appears to come from the Chief Executive Officer, but it is later discovered that the message is not legitimate. Which of the following does this best represent? (Choose two.)
A. Misinformation
B. Smishing
C. Impersonation
D. Typosquatting
E. Pretexting
F. Phishing
Answer: BC
Explanation:
Smishing is phishing via SMS/text messages, exactly as seen when users receive a malicious link by text. Impersonation occurs when the attacker poses as the CEO to lend credibility to the request and trick employees into divulging sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION 829
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