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NEW QUESTION 1
A network administrator recently deployed new Wi-Fi 6E access points in an office and enabled 6GHz coverage. Users report that when they are connected to the new 6GHz SSID, the performance is worse than the 5GHz SSID. The network administrator suspects that there is a source of 6GHz interference in the office. Using the troubleshooting methodology, which of the following actions should the network administrator do next?
A. Test to see if the changes have improved network performance.
B. Use a spectrum analyzer and check the 6GHz spectrum.
C. Document the list of channels that are experiencing interference.
D. Change the channels being used by the 6GHz radios in the APs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Before making configuration changes, you should verify and pinpoint the suspected interference source by analyzing the 6 GHz band. A spectrum analyzer will reveal any non-Wi-Fi transmissions or overlapping noise that’s degrading performance, allowing you to target your remediation effectively.
NEW QUESTION 2
A network engineer is installing new switches in the data center to replace existing infrastructure. The previous network hardware had administrative interfaces that were plugged into the existing network along with all other server hardware on the same subnet. Which of the following should the engineer do to better secure these administrative interfaces?
A. Connect the switch management ports to a separate physical network.
B. Disable unused physical ports on the switches to keep unauthorized users out.
C. Set the administrative interfaces and the network switch ports on the same VLAN.
D. Upgrade all of the switch firmware to the latest hardware levels.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Segregating management interfaces onto their own dedicated network ensures that administrative access is isolated from general user and server traffic, greatly reducing the attack surface, and preventing lateral movement if the production network is compromised.
NEW QUESTION 3
An organization has centralized logging capability at the on-premises data center and wants a solution that can consolidate logging from deployed cloud workloads. The organization would like to automate the detection and alerting mechanism. Which of the following best meets the requirements?
A. IDS/IPS.
B. SIEM.
C. Data lake.
D. Syslog.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management system ingests and normalizes logs from on-premises and cloud sources, applies automated correlation rules for detection, and issues alerts, exactly matching the need for centralized logging, analysis, and automated notification.
NEW QUESTION 4
Security policy states that all inbound traffic to the environment needs to be restricted, but all external outbound traffic is allowed within the hybrid cloud environment. A new application server was recently set up in the cloud. Which of the following would most likely need to be configured so that the server has the appropriate access set up? (Choose two.)
A. Application gateway.
B. IPS.
C. Port security.
D. Firewall.
E. Network security group.
F. Screened subnet.
Answer: DE
Explanation:
A perimeter firewall enforces the organization’s “deny inbound by default, allow all outbound” policy at the edge of the cloud environment, while an Azure-style NSG applies the same rule set at the VM/subnet level. Together they ensure no inbound connections slip through and that outbound traffic remains unrestricted.
NEW QUESTION 5
An architect needs to deploy a new payroll application on a cloud host. End users’ access to the application will be based on the end users’ role. In addition, the host must be deployed on the 192.168.77.32/30 subnet. Which of the following Zero Trust elements are being implemented in this design? (Choose two.)
A. Least privilege.
B. Device trust.
C. Microsegmentation.
D. CASB.
E. WAF.
F. MFA.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
– Least privilege: Granting users access to the payroll app strictly according to their roles enforces the principle of least privilege.
– Microsegmentation: Placing the host in its own 192.168.77.32/30 subnet isolates it from other workloads, achieving microsegmentation.
NEW QUESTION 6
End users are getting certificate errors and are unable to connect to an application deployed in a cloud. The application requires HTTPS connection. A network solution architect finds that a firewall is deployed between end users and the application in the cloud. Which of the following is the root cause of the issue?
A. The firewall on the application server has port 443 blocked.
B. The firewall has port 443 blocked while SSL/HTTPS inspection is enabled.
C. The end users do not have certificates on their laptops.
D. The firewall has an expired certificate while SSL/HTTPS inspection is enabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When SSL inspection is turned on, the firewall intercepts and re-signs HTTPS traffic with its own certificate. If that certificate has expired, end users will see certificate errors even though port 443 is open and the backend application’s certificate is valid.
NEW QUESTION 7
A network architect is designing a solution to secure the organization’s applications based on the security policy. The requirements are:
– Users must authenticate using one set of credentials.
– External users must be located in authorized sites.
– Session timeouts must be enforced.
– Network access requirements should be changed as needed.
Which of the following best meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Role-based access.
B. Single sign-on.
C. Static IP allocation.
D. Multifactor authentication.
E. Conditional access policy.
F. Risk-based authentication.
Answer: BE
Explanation:
Single sign-on: Provides users with one set of credentials for authentication across all applications, simplifying access and reducing password fatigue.
Conditional access policy: Enforces location-based restrictions for external users, configurable session timeouts, and dynamic network access controls that can be updated as requirements evolve.
NEW QUESTION 8
An administrator logged in to a cloud account on a shared machine but forgot to log out after the session ended. Which of the following types of security threats does this action pose?
A. IP spoofing.
B. Zero-day.
C. On-path attack.
D. Privilege escalation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
By leaving an active session open on a shared machine, an attacker with access to that machine can intercept or hijack the administrator’s session tokens or credentials – classic on-path behavior – allowing them to impersonate the admin without needing elevated exploits.
NEW QUESTION 9
After a malicious actor used an open port in a company’s lobby, a network architect needs to enhance network security. The solution must enable:
– Security posture check.
– Auto remediation capabilities.
– Network isolation.
– Device and user authentication.
Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. IPS
B. Microsegmentation
C. 802.1X
D. NAC
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAC solutions perform health-and-posture assessments before granting network access, authenticate both devices and users, automatically quarantine or remediate noncompliant machines, and enforce dynamic isolation policies, fully satisfying all four requirements.
NEW QUESTION 10
An outage occurred after a software upgrade on core switching. A network administrator thinks that the firmware installed had a bug. Which of the following should the network administrator do next?
A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue.
B. Test the theory to determine cause.
C. Document lessons learned.
D. Implement the solution.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Before taking corrective action, you need to verify that the new firmware is indeed the root cause, such as by rolling back to the previous version in a controlled test or reproducing the failure in a lab, so you’re sure your fix addresses the actual problem.
NEW QUESTION 11
A network architect needs to design a solution to ensure every cloud environment network is built to the same baseline. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Use automated deployment.
– Easily update multiple environments.
– Share code with a community of practice.
Which of the following are the best solutions? (Choose two.)
A. CI/CD pipelines.
B. Public code repository.
C. Deployment runbooks.
D. Private code repository.
E. Automated image deployment.
F. Deployment guides.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
– CI/CD pipelines: Automate the provisioning and configuration of network baselines across all environments, and make it easy to roll out updates consistently.
– Public code repository: Enables your community of practice to collaborate, review, and contribute to shared IaC modules and templates, while making updates discoverable and reusable.
NEW QUESTION 12
A network engineer adds a large group of servers to a screened subnet and configures them to use IPv6 only. The servers need to seamlessly communicate with IPv4 servers on the internal networks. Which of the following actions is the best way to achieve this goal?
A. Add IPv6 to the network cards on the internal servers so they can communicate with the screened subnet.
B. Set up a bridge between the screened subnet and internal networks to handle the conversion.
C. Change the servers in the screened subnet from IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
D. Implement NAT64 on the router between the screened subnet and the internal network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAT64 provides automatic protocol translation between IPv6-only clients and IPv4-only servers at the router, letting your new IPv6-only servers communicate seamlessly with existing IPv4 resources without changing their addresses.
NEW QUESTION 13
A company’s IT department is expected to grow from 100 to 200 employees, and the sales department is expected to grow from 1,000 to a maximum of 2,000 employees. Each employee owns a single laptop with a single IP allocated. The network architect wants to deploy network segmentation using the IP range 10.0.0.0/8. Which of the following is the best solution?
A. Allocate 10.1.0.0/30 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.0.0/16 to the sales department.
B. Allocate 10.1.0.0/16 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.1.0/24 to the sales department.
C. Allocate 10.1.0.0/22 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.0.0/15 to the sales department.
D. Allocate 10.1.0.0/16 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.1.0/25 to the sales department.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A /22 gives you 1,022 usable addresses, ample headroom for 200 IT laptops, while a /15 yields 32,766 addresses, covering up to 2,000 sales laptops with room to grow, all within the 10.0.0.0/8 space.
NEW QUESTION 14
A company is experiencing numerous network issues and decides to expand its support team. The new junior employees will need to be onboarded in the shortest time possible and be able to troubleshoot issues with minimal assistance. Which of the following should the company create to achieve this goal?
A. Statement of work documenting what each junior employee should do when troubleshooting.
B. Clearly documented runbooks for networking issues and knowledge base articles.
C. Physical and logical network diagrams of the entire networking infrastructure.
D. A mentor program for guiding each junior employee until they are familiar with the networking infrastructure.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Runbooks provide step-by-step troubleshooting procedures, and a solid knowledge base captures known issues and resolutions. Together they let new team members ramp up quickly and resolve common network problems with minimal hand-holding.
NEW QUESTION 15
A company is expanding its network and needs to ensure improved stability and reliability. The proposed solution must fulfill the following requirements:
– Detection and prevention of network loops.
– Automatic configuration of ports.
– Standard protocol (not proprietary).
Which of the following protocols is the most appropriate?
A. STP
B. SIP
C. RTSP
D. BGP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Spanning Tree Protocol (IEEE 802.1D) is a non-proprietary standard that automatically detects Layer 2 loops and dynamically places redundant switch ports into a blocking or forwarding state, ensuring loop prevention and automatic port configuration.
NEW QUESTION 16
A network architect needs to design a new network to connect multiple private data centers. The network must:
– Provide privacy for all traffic between locations.
– Use preexisting internet connections.
– Use intelligent steering of application traffic over the best path.
Which of the following best meets these requirements?
A. MPLS connections.
B. SD-WAN.
C. Site-to-site VPN.
D. ExpressRoute.
Answer: B
Explanation:
By running encrypted tunnels over your existing Internet links and dynamically steering traffic across the optimal path, an SD-WAN solution delivers privacy and performance intelligence without requiring new private circuits.
NEW QUESTION 17
A user reports an issue connecting to a database server. The front-end application for this database is hosted on the company’s web server. The network engineer has changed the network subnet that the company servers are located on along with the IP addresses of the servers. These are the new configurations:
– New subnet for the servers is 10.10.10.64/27.
– Web server IP address is 10.10.10.101.
– Database server IP is 10.10.10.93.
Which of the following is most likely causing the user’s issue?
A. The web application server is not forwarding the requests.
B. The database server firewall is blocking the port to the database.
C. The DNS server is not resolving properly.
D. The web server does not have the correct network configuration.
Answer: D
Explanation:
With a /27 mask on 10.10.10.64/27, valid host addresses run from 10.10.10.65 through 10.10.10.94. The database server’s IP (10.10.10.93) is in that range, but the web server’s IP (10.10.10.101) falls outside it – so it’s mis-configured and cannot reach the database.
NEW QUESTION 18
After a company migrated all services to the cloud, the security auditor discovers many users have administrator roles on different services. The company needs a solution that:
– Protects the services on the cloud.
– Limits access to administrative roles.
– Creates a policy to approve requests for administrative roles on critical services within a limited time.
– Forces password rotation for administrative roles.
– Audits usage of administrative roles.
Which of the following is the best way to meet the company’s requirements?
A. Privileged access management.
B. Session-based token.
C. Conditional access.
D. Access control list.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution provides just-in-time elevation to administrative roles, enforces approval workflows with time-bound access, requires credential rotation, and offers comprehensive auditing of all privileged sessions, fully meeting the company’s requirements.
NEW QUESTION 19
Server A (10.2.3.9) needs to access Server B (10.2.2.7) within the cloud environment since they are segmented into different network sections. All external inbound traffic must be blocked to those servers. Which of the following need to be configured to appropriately secure the cloud network? (Choose two.)
A. Network security group rule: allow 10.2.3.9 to 10.2.2.7.
B. Network security group rule: allow 10.2.0.0/16 to 0.0.0.0/0.
C. Network security group rule: deny 0.0.0.0/0 to 10.2.0.0/16.
D. Firewall rule: deny 10.2.0.0/16 to 0.0.0.0/0.
E. Firewall rule: allow 10.2.0.0/16 to 0.0.0.0/0.
F. Network security group rule: deny 10.2.0.0/16 to 0.0.0.0/0.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
– Network security group rule: allow 10.2.3.9 to 10.2.2.7. Explicitly permits Server A’s IP to reach Server B.
– Network security group rule: deny 0.0.0.0/0 to 10.2.0.0/16. Blocks all inbound traffic from any external source into the 10.2.0.0/16 address space, ensuring no external access.
NEW QUESTION 20
Which of the following helps the security of the network design to align with industry best practices?
A. Reference architectures.
B. Licensing agreement.
C. Service-level agreement.
D. Memorandum of understanding.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference architectures provide standardized, vendor-agnostic blueprints that incorporate industry best practices for security, ensuring your network design aligns with proven frameworks.
NEW QUESTION 21
A network architect is working on a new network design to better support remote and on-campus workers. Traffic needs to be decrypted for inspection in the cloud but is not required to go through the company’s data center. Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. Secure web gateway.
B. Transit gateway.
C. Virtual private network.
D. Intrusion prevention system.
E. Network access control system.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A cloud-delivered Secure Web Gateway can terminate and decrypt user HTTPS sessions directly in the cloud for policy enforcement and inspection without hair-pinning traffic back through the data center.
NEW QUESTION 22
An organization wants to evaluate network behavior with a network monitoring tool that is not inline. The organization will use the logs for further correlation and analysis of potential threats. Which of the following is the best solution?
A. Syslog to a common dashboard used in the NOC.
B. SNMP trap with log analytics.
C. SSL decryption of network packets with preconfigured alerts.
D. NetFlow to feed into the SIEM.
Answer: D
Explanation:
NetFlow provides detailed, flow-level metadata (source/destination IPs, ports, protocols, byte counts, timestamps) without sitting inline. By exporting these records into your SIEM, you gain centralized logging and can correlate network behaviors with other security events for threat detection and analysis.
NEW QUESTION 23
A global company has depots in various locations. A proprietary application was deployed locally at each of the depots, but issues with getting the consolidated data instantly occurred. The Chief Information Officer decided to centralize the application and deploy it in the cloud. After the cloud deployment, users report the application is slow. Which of the following is most likely the issue?
A. Throttling.
B. Overutilization.
C. Packet loss.
D. Latency.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Centralizing the application in the cloud introduces longer round-trip times for geographically dispersed users. The increased propagation delay (“latency”) is the most likely cause of the perceived slowness.
NEW QUESTION 24
A SaaS company’s new service currently is being provided through four servers. The company’s end users are having connection issues, which is affecting about 25% of the connections. Which of the following is most likely the root cause of this issue?
A. The service is using round-robin load balancing through a DNS server with one server down.
B. The service is using weighted load balancing with 40% of the traffic on server A, 20% on server B, 20% on server C, and server D is down.
C. The service is using a least-connection load-balancing method with one server down.
D. Load balancing is configured with a health check in front of these servers, and one of these servers is unavailable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
With simple round-robin DNS distributing 25% of requests to each of four servers, a single server outage directly causes exactly 25% of connections to fail, matching the reported impact.
NEW QUESTION 25
A call center company provides its services through a VoIP infrastructure. Recently, the call center set up an application to manage its documents on a cloud application. The application is causing recurring audio losses for VoIP callers. The network administrator needs to fix the issue with the least expensive solution. Which of the following is the best approach?
A. Adding a second internet link and physically splitting voice and data networks into different routes.
B. Configuring QoS rules at the internet router to prioritize the VoIP calls.
C. Creating two VLANs, one for voice and the other for data.
D. Setting up VoIP devices to use a voice codec with a higher compression rate.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prioritizing VoIP packets over the document-management traffic ensures that voice gets the necessary bandwidth and low latency even when the network is congested – all without the cost of new links or hardware.
NEW QUESTION 26
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