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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following types of social engineering attacks sends an unsolicited text message to a user’s mobile device?
A. Impersonation.
B. Vishing.
C. Spear phishing.
D. Smishing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Smishing is the act of sending fraudulent messages via SMS or other texting platforms to trick users into revealing sensitive information or clicking malicious links. This distinguishes it from phishing over email (spear phishing), voice calls (vishing), or in-person deception (impersonation).
NEW QUESTION 2
A user recently installed an application that accesses a database from a local server. When launching the application, it does not populate any information. Which of the following command-line tools is the best to troubleshoot the issue?
A. ipconfig
B. nslookup
C. netstat
D. curl
Answer: C
Explanation:
netstat reveals active network connections and listening ports on the local machine. By using it, you can confirm that the application has successfully opened (or attempted) a connection to the database server’s port, verify the remote server’s address and port, and detect any failed or hanging TCP sessions that would prevent data retrieval.
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following describes a vulnerability that has been exploited before a patch or remediation is available?
A. Spoofing
B. Brute-force
C. DoS
D. zero-day
Answer: D
Explanation:
A zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw that is actively exploited by attackers before the software vendor has released a patch or remediation – meaning defenders have “zero days” to prepare once the exploit becomes known.
NEW QUESTION 4
An employee is using a photo editing program. Certain features are disabled and require a log-in, which the employee does not have. Which of the following is a way to resolve this issue?
A. License assignment.
B. VPN connection.
C. Application repair.
D. Program re-installation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When features in an application are disabled pending a login, it typically indicates those capabilities are controlled by the software’s licensing system. Assigning (or activating) the proper license entitles the user to those premium features, restoring full functionality without unnecessary repair or reinstall steps.
NEW QUESTION 5
An application’s performance is degrading over time. The application is slowing, but it never gives an error and does not crash. Which of the following tools should a technician use to start troubleshooting?
A. Reliability history.
B. Computer management.
C. Resource monitor.
D. Disk.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Resource Monitor provides real-time insights into CPU, memory, disk, and network usage by process. By observing which resources steadily increase or become bottlenecks over time, a technician can pinpoint leaks (e.g., memory), I/O contention, or other performance issues driving the slowdown.
NEW QUESTION 6
After a recent mobile OS upgrade to a smartphone, a user attempts to access their corporate email, but the application does not open. A technician restarts the smartphone, but the issue persists. Which of the following is the most likely way to resolve the issue?
A. Updating the failed software.
B. Registering the smartphone with an MDM solution.
C. Installing a third-party client.
D. Clearing the cache partition.
Answer: A
Explanation:
After a major OS upgrade, existing applications often require updates to maintain compatibility with new APIs and system libraries. Updating the corporate email app to its latest version ensures it’s built against the updated OS and can launch properly.
NEW QUESTION 7
Recently, the number of users sharing smartphone passcodes has increased. The management team wants a technician to deploy a more secure screen lock method. Which of the following technologies should the technician use?
A. Pattern lock.
B. Facial recognition.
C. Device encryption.
D. Multifactor authentication.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Facial recognition leverages biometric characteristics unique to each user, offering stronger security than shared passcodes or easily observed pattern locks. It ensures that only the enrolled individual can unlock the device, reducing the risk of unauthorized access from shared codes.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following provides information to employees, such as permitted activities when using the organization’s resources?
A. AUP
B. MNDA
C. DRM
D. EULA
Answer: A
Explanation:
An Acceptable Use Policy outlines what activities employees are permitted or prohibited from performing when using the organization’s IT resources. It provides clear guidance on acceptable behavior, ensuring users understand the rules governing company systems and data.
NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following is an example of an application publisher including undisclosed additional software in an installation package?
A. Virus.
B. Ransomware.
C. Potentially unwanted program.
D. Trojan.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A potentially unwanted program (PUP) refers to software bundled with an installer that the user did not explicitly request and that’s often advertised or installed without clear disclosure. While not always malicious, PUPs can degrade performance or introduce unwanted behavior, matching the description of undisclosed additional software in a package.
NEW QUESTION 10
A help desk team was alerted that a company-owned cell phone has an unrecognized password- cracking application. Which of the following should the help desk team do to prevent further unauthorized installations from occurring?
A. Configure Group Policy.
B. Implement PAM.
C. Install anti-malware software.
D. Deploy MDM.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution lets administrators enforce app-installation policies – whitelisting approved applications and blocking all others. By deploying MDM, the help desk can centrally control which apps users may install on company-owned phones, preventing unauthorized tools from being added in the future.
NEW QUESTION 11
A technician is preparing to replace the batteries in rack-mounted UPS system. After ensuring the power is turned off and the batteries are fully discharged, the technician needs to remove the battery modules from the bottom of the rack. Which of the following steps should the technician take?
A. Ensure the fire suppression system is ready to be activated.
B. Use appropriate lifting techniques and guidelines.
C. Place the removed batteries in an antistatic bag.
D. Wear a face mask to filter out any harmful fumes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
UPS battery modules are heavy and awkward; employing proper lifting techniques (e.g., lifting with the legs, keeping the back straight, and using team lifts or mechanical aids as necessary) prevents musculoskeletal injuries and ensures safe removal.
NEW QUESTION 12
A technician needs to configure laptops so that only administrators can enable virtualization technology if needed. Which of the following should the technician configure?
A. BIOS password.
B. Guest account.
C. Screen lock.
D. AutoRun setting.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Setting a BIOS (or UEFI) supervisor password restricts access to firmware settings, including enabling or disabling virtualization technology. Only those with the password – presumably administrators – can enter the BIOS setup and make that change.
NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following describes an attack in which an attacker sets up a rogue AP that tricks users into connecting to the rogue AP instead of the legitimate network?
A. Stalkerware.
B. Evil twin.
C. Tailgating.
D. Shoulder surfing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An evil twin attack involves an adversary configuring a rogue wireless access point with the same SSID and similar settings as a legitimate network. Unsuspecting users connect to this rogue AP, allowing the attacker to intercept traffic, capture credentials, and launch further attacks.
NEW QUESTION 14
A user frequently misplaces their Windows laptop and is concerned about it being stolen. The user would like additional security controls on their laptop. Which of the following is a built-in technology that a technician can use to enable full drive encryption?
A. Active Directory
B. New Technology File System
C. Encrypting File System
D. BitLocker
Answer: D
Explanation:
BitLocker is a built-in Windows feature that provides full-volume encryption of the system drive, protecting all data if the laptop is lost or stolen. It integrates with the TPM (when available) for secure key storage and can be configured via Group Policy or the Control Panel without additional software.
NEW QUESTION 15
A customer is unable to open some files on their system. Each time the customer attempts to open a file, the customer receives a message that the file is encrypted. Which of the following best describes this issue?
A. Keylogger
B. Ransomware
C. Phishing
D. Cryptominer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ransomware is malware that encrypts a user’s files and then demands payment (a ransom) in exchange for the decryption key. The user’s inability to open the files and the message indicating they’re encrypted are classic signs of a ransomware attack.
NEW QUESTION 16
A support specialist needs to decide whether to install a 32-bit or 64-bit OS architecture on a new computer. Which of the following specifications will help the specialist determine which OS architecture to use?
A. 16GB RAM
B. Intel i7 CPU
C. 500GB HDD
D. 1Gbps Ethernet
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CPU’s architecture determines whether it can run a 64-bit OS. Most Intel i7 processors are 64-bit capable, whereas simply knowing the amount of RAM (e.g., 16 GB) doesn’t guarantee the processor supports 64-bit operations. Once you confirm the CPU is 64-bit (as with an Intel i7), you can install a 64-bit OS to fully utilize available memory.
NEW QUESTION 17
A technician is assigned to offboard a user. Which of the following are common tasks on an offboarding checklist? (Choose two.)
A. Quarantine the hard drive in the user’s laptop.
B. Deactivate the user’s key fobs for door access.
C. Purge all Pll associated with the user.
D. Suspend the user’s email account.
E. Turn off the network ports underneath the user’s desk.
F. Add the MAC address of the user’s computer to a blocklist.
Answer: BD
Explanation:
– Deactivate the user’s key fobs for door access: Key fobs (or badges) grant physical access to offices, server rooms, or secure areas. Disabling them prevents the former employee from entering the premises once their employment ends.
– Suspend the user’s email account: Email is often the gateway to corporate resources (password resets, sensitive communications, file sharing). Suspending the account immediately stops any further logins, prevents unauthorized access to archived emails, and blocks potential misuse.
NEW QUESTION 18
A user has been adding data to the same spreadsheet for several years. After adding a significant amount of data, they are now unable to open the file. Which of the following should a technician do to resolve the issue?
A. Revert the spreadsheet to the last restore point.
B. Increase the amount of RAM.
C. the storage drive.
D. Upgrade the network connection speed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
As spreadsheets grow in size and complexity, they demand more system memory to load and manipulate data. If the file becomes so large that the available RAM is insufficient, the application may fail to open it. Adding more RAM gives the spreadsheet software the resources it needs to load and work with the expanded dataset.
NEW QUESTION 19
Which of the following methods involves requesting a user’s approval via a push notification to verify the user’s identity?
A. Call.
B. Authenticator.
C. Hardware token.
D. SMS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern authenticator apps (such as Microsoft Authenticator or Google Authenticator with push capability) can send a push notification to the user’s registered device. The user approves or denies the login request via the notification, providing a quick and secure second factor for authentication.
NEW QUESTION 20
A customer wants to be able to work from home but does not want to be responsible for bringing company equipment back and forth. Which of the following would allow the user to remotely access and use a Windows PC at the main office? (Choose two.)
A. SPICE
B. SSH
C. RDP
D. VPN
E. RMM
F. WinRM
Answer: CD
Explanation:
– RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows the user to connect to and control the Windows PC’s desktop environment from home.
– VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel into the office network so the user’s home device can reach the Windows PC before initiating the RDP session.
NEW QUESTION 21
A technician notices that the weekly backup is taking too long to complete. The daily backups are incremental. Which of the following would most likely resolve the issue?
A. Changing the backup window.
B. Performing incremental weekly backups.
C. Increasing the backup storage.
D. Running synthetic full weekly backups.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Synthetic full backups consolidate the most recent full backup and subsequent incremental backups into a new full backup on the backup storage, without repeatedly reading all data from the production systems. This approach significantly reduces the time impact on the network and source systems during the weekly backup window while still providing a full backup set for restoration.
NEW QUESTION 22
A user reports getting a BSOD error on their computer at least twice a day. Which of the following should the technician use to determine the cause?
A. Event Viewer
B. Performance Monitor
C. System Information
D. Device Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
Event Viewer logs system errors, including the critical events that lead up to and include Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) incidents. By reviewing the “System” and “Application” logs, especially the error entries and any bugcheck codes, you can identify the faulting driver, service, or hardware component responsible for the crashes.
NEW QUESTION 23
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