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NEW QUESTION 492
After installing a new wireless access point, an engineer tests the device and sees that it is not performing at the rated speeds. Which of the following should the engineer do to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A.   Ensure a bottleneck is not coming from other devices on the network.
B.   Install the latest firmware for the device.
C.   Create a new VLAN for the access point.
D.   Make sure the SSID is not longer than 16 characters.
E.   Configure the AP in autonomous mode.
F.   Install a wireless LAN controller.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
Network performance can be affected by congestion or bottlenecks elsewhere, such as slow uplinks or overloaded switches, even if the AP itself is functioning correctly. Outdated firmware may lack performance optimizations or bug fixes. Updating to the latest firmware can resolve performance or compatibility issues. Creating a new VLAN helps with segmentation but does not directly improve speed performance. SSID length has no impact on performance unless it’s extremely long (and 16 characters is not excessive). Autonomous mode vs. controller-based depends on design – switching modes is not a performance fix. Installing a WLC is only necessary in controller-based deployments and doesn’t address poor performance directly. Best actions to troubleshoot poor wireless performance: check for network bottlenecks and update firmware.
NEW QUESTION 493
After a recent corporate merger, a network administrator needs to build reference documentation on multivendor infrastructure. Which of the following protocols will provide the information?
A.   ICMP
B.   CDP
C.   LLDP
D.   SIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol) is a vendor-neutral protocol used by network devices to advertise identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local network, making it ideal for documenting multivendor environments. ICMP is used for network diagnostics (e.g., ping), not device discovery. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is Cisco proprietary and not suitable for multivendor networks. SIP is a signaling protocol used in VoIP, unrelated to infrastructure documentation. LLDP is the correct choice for discovering and documenting multivendor network infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION 494
Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology is most likely to involve talking to a user who opens a ticket?
A.   Verifying full system functionality.
B.   Establishing a theory of probable cause.
C.   Identifying the problem.
D.   Implementing the solution.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Identifying the problem is the first step in the troubleshooting methodology and often involves communicating with the user who reported the issue to gather details, symptoms, and the context of the problem. Verifying full system functionality happens after a solution is applied. Establishing a theory of probable cause is based on observations and initial analysis, typically after gathering information. Implementing the solution is an action step following diagnosis. Talking to the user to gather information occurs during problem identification.
NEW QUESTION 495
A network administrator is hosting a local application on a Type 2 hypervisor, but the application only has accessibility to the host machine. Which of the following address types would the administrator most likely visit to access the application?
A.   Public
B.   Loopback
C.   Private
D.   APIPA
Answer: B
Explanation:
When an application is hosted locally and accessible only from the host machine, it is typically accessed via the loopback address (127.0.0.1) or localhost. Public addresses are routable on the internet and would allow external access – not applicable here. Private addresses are for internal network communication but can be accessed by other devices in the same network – not just the host. APIPA addresses (169.254.x.x) are automatically assigned when DHCP fails and are not used for intentional host-only access. The administrator would most likely use the loopback address to access the application locally.
NEW QUESTION 496
A network manager connects two switches together and uses two connecting links. Which of the following configurations will prevent Layer 2 loops?
A.   802.1Q tagging.
B.   Full duplex.
C.   Link aggregation.
D.   QoS.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Link aggregation (e.g., LACP – Link Aggregation Control Protocol) combines multiple physical links into a single logical link. This prevents Layer 2 loops by treating the aggregated links as one logical connection, ensuring loop-free redundancy and increased bandwidth. 802.1Q tagging is for VLAN identification, not loop prevention. Full duplex affects data transmission mode, not topology loops. QoS (Quality of Service) prioritizes traffic types but does not address Layer 2 loops. Link aggregation is the correct configuration to prevent Layer 2 loops when using multiple connections between switches.
NEW QUESTION 497
Which of the following remote connectivity methods is used when data and management traffic use the same network infrastructure?
A.   In-band
B.   Native VLAN
C.   Full-tunnel
D.   Site-to-site
Answer: A
Explanation:
In-band management means that management traffic shares the same network as regular data traffic. This is common but can pose security risks if not properly segmented. Native VLAN is a VLAN configuration detail, not a remote connectivity method. Full-tunnel refers to VPN configurations where all traffic (including internet-bound) passes through the VPN. Site-to-site is a VPN type for connecting networks, not specifically about management traffic. In-band is the correct term for using the same network for data and management.
NEW QUESTION 498
Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology would most likely involve comparing current throughput tests to a baseline?
A.   Implement the solution.
B.   Verify full system functionality.
C.   Document findings.
D.   Test the theory.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Verifying full system functionality occurs after implementing a fix. This step ensures the solution resolved the issue and that performance is back to expected levels. Comparing current throughput to baseline measurements is part of validation testing to confirm everything is within normal operational parameters.
NEW QUESTION 499
Which of the following uses the longest prefix match to determine an exit interface?
A.   ARP table.
B.   MAC address table.
C.   Routing table.
D.   Netstat table.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A routing table uses the longest prefix match (most specific subnet mask) to determine the best path and exit interface for forwarding IP packets. ARP table maps IP addresses to MAC addresses, not used for route selection. MAC address table is used by switches to forward frames based on MAC addresses, not IP routes. Netstat table shows active connections and ports, not used for routing decisions. Longest prefix match is a routing principle applied within the routing table.
NEW QUESTION 500
A network administrator needs to securely connect to an Ubuntu server for management purposes. Which of the following protocols will most likely address this requirement?
A.   HTTPS
B.   SFTP
C.   RDP
D.   SSH
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) is the standard and most secure protocol for remote command-line access and management of Linux-based systems, including Ubuntu servers. HTTPS is used for secure web traffic, not direct server management. SFTP runs over SSH but is used for secure file transfers, not server administration. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is primarily for Windows systems, not Ubuntu/Linux. SSH is the correct protocol for securely managing an Ubuntu server.
NEW QUESTION 501
Which of the following allows for interactive, secure remote management of a network infrastructure device?
A.   SSH
B.   VNC
C.   RDP
D.   SNMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) provides interactive, secure remote command-line access to network devices (e.g., switches, routers, firewalls). It’s widely used for remote management in network infrastructure. VNC provides graphical remote access but is not typically used for network devices. RDP is used for GUI-based remote access to Windows systems, not for infrastructure devices. SNMP is used for monitoring and managing devices, not for interactive remote sessions. SSH is the best choice for interactive and secure remote management of network infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION 502
After a recent security awareness phishing campaign, the cybersecurity team discovers that additional security measures need to be set up when users access potentially malicious websites. Which of the following security measures will best address this concern?
A.   Implement DNS filtering.
B.   Update ACLs to only allow HTTPS.
C.   Configure new IPS hardware.
D.   Deploy 802.1X security features.
Answer: A
Explanation:
DNS filtering blocks access to malicious domains by preventing DNS resolution of known bad sites, protecting users from phishing and malware even if they click on harmful links. Updating ACLs to allow only HTTPS doesn’t stop access to malicious HTTPS sites. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) helps with network-level threats but may not directly prevent users from resolving or visiting phishing domains. 802.1X controls network access at the port level, not web traffic or DNS-level filtering. DNS filtering is the most effective and targeted measure to prevent access to malicious websites.
NEW QUESTION 503
During a security audit, a consulting firm notices inconsistencies between the documentation and the environment. Which of the following can keep a record of who made the changes and what the changes are?
A.   Network access control.
B.   Configuration monitoring.
C.   Zero Trust.
D.   Syslog.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuration monitoring and management tools (often part of network management systems) maintain version-controlled records of device configurations, track changes, and log who made them. This provides accountability and supports compliance audits.
NEW QUESTION 504
Which of the following describes a malicious application that takes advantage of a software flaw?
A.   Risk
B.   Vulnerability
C.   Exploit
D.   Threat
Answer: C
Explanation:
An exploit is a malicious application or code that takes advantage of a vulnerability (a flaw or weakness) in software to perform unauthorized actions. Risk is the potential for loss or damage. Vulnerability is the flaw or weakness that could be exploited. Threat is any circumstance or event that has the potential to cause harm. The exploit is the actual attack mechanism that abuses the vulnerability.
NEW QUESTION 505
Which of the following allows a standard user to log in to multiple resources with one account?
A.   RADIUS
B.   MFA
C.   TACACS+
D.   SSO
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSO (Single Sign-On) allows a user to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems or applications without needing to log in again for each resource. RADIUS is a centralized authentication protocol but does not inherently provide single sign-on. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) adds additional authentication factors but does not consolidate logins. TACACS+ is an authentication protocol used primarily for network devices, not for enabling SSO across multiple applications. SSO is the correct choice for enabling access to multiple resources with one account login.
NEW QUESTION 506
Which of the following describes the capability of a cloud service to adjust resources on demand?
A.   Elasticity
B.   Multitenancy
C.   Containers
D.   Scalability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Elasticity refers to the automatic adjustment of cloud resources (such as compute power, memory, or storage) up or down based on demand, ensuring efficient resource utilization and cost control. Multitenancy allows multiple customers to share the same cloud infrastructure securely. Containers package applications and their dependencies, but they don’t inherently adjust resources. Scalability refers to the ability to grow resources (manually or automatically), but elasticity specifically emphasizes dynamic, on-demand adjustment. Elasticity best describes automatic resource adjustment in cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION 507
A company’s Chief Information Security Officer requires that servers and firewalls have accurate time stamps when creating log files so that security analysts can correlate events during incident investigations. Which of the following should be implemented?
A.   Syslog server.
B.   SMTP.
C.   NTP.
D.   SNMP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
NTP (Network Time Protocol) is used to synchronize the clocks of network devices, such as servers and firewalls, ensuring accurate timestamps in log files. This is essential for event correlation during security incident investigations. Syslog server collects logs but does not set or sync device time. SMTP is for email transmission and unrelated to time synchronization. SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices, not time sync. NTP ensures accurate and consistent timestamps, which is critical for log analysis and incident response.
NEW QUESTION 508
Which of the following connector types is most commonly associated with Wi-Fi antennas?
A.   BNC
B.   SFP
C.   MPO
D.   RJ45
Answer: A
Explanation:
BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman) connectors are commonly used with Wi-Fi antennas, especially for RF (radio frequency) connections in wireless networks. SFP is used for fiber or Ethernet modules in switches and routers. MPO is a multi-fiber connector used in high-density fiber-optic cabling. RJ45 is used for Ethernet cabling, not for antenna connections. BNC is the connector type most commonly associated with Wi-Fi antennas.
NEW QUESTION 509
An organization recently connected a new computer to the LAN. The user is unable to ping the default gateway. The technician examines the configuration and sees a self-assigned IP address. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A.   The DHCP server is not available.
B.   An RFC1918 address is being used.
C.   The TCP/IP stack is disabled.
D.   A static IP is assigned.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A self-assigned IP address (typically in the 169.254.x.x range, also known as an APIPA address) indicates that the computer attempted to obtain an IP address via DHCP but did not receive a response. An RFC1918 address (like 192.168.x.x or 10.x.x.x) is a private IP address range, not self-assigned. If the TCP/IP stack were disabled, the system wouldn’t have any IP address or network functionality at all. A static IP address is manually set, not self-assigned via APIPA. The most likely cause is that the DHCP server is unavailable.
NEW QUESTION 510
A network technician is attempting to harden a commercial switch that was recently purchased. Which of the following hardening techniques best mitigates the use of publicly available information?
A.   Changing the default password.
B.   Blocking inbound SSH connections.
C.   Removing the gateway from the network configuration.
D.   Restricting physical access to the switch.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Changing the default password is one of the most effective and essential hardening steps, as default credentials are widely known and publicly available. Leaving them unchanged poses a major security risk. Blocking inbound SSH connections might limit remote management but doesn’t specifically address default/public info. Removing the gateway may affect network connectivity but does not harden against credential-based risks. Restricting physical access is important, but it doesn’t mitigate the risk from publicly known login credentials. Changing default passwords directly addresses the risk of using publicly available information.
NEW QUESTION 511
A new backup system takes too long to copy files to the new SAN each night. A network administrator makes a simple change to the network and the devices to decrease backup times. Which of the following does the network administrator change?
A.   QoS
B.   SDN
C.   MTU
D.   VXLAN
E.   TTL
Answer: C
Explanation:
MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) defines the largest packet size that can be sent over the network without fragmentation. Increasing the MTU allows larger packets (e.g., jumbo frames), which can reduce overhead and improve throughput, especially for large file transfers like backups. QoS prioritizes traffic types but doesn’t improve file transfer speed directly. SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is an architectural approach, not a simple change. VXLAN is used for network virtualization, not backup performance. TTL (Time To Live) limits packet lifespan but doesn’t affect transfer speed. Changing the MTU can significantly decrease backup times by enabling more efficient data transmission.
NEW QUESTION 512
Users are experiencing significant lag while connecting to a cloud-based application during peak hours. An examination of the network reveals that the bandwidth is being heavily utilized. Further analysis shows that only a few users are using the application at any given time. Which of the following is the most cost-effective solution for this issue?
A.   Limit the number of users who can access the application.
B.   Lease a Direct Connect connection to the cloud service provider.
C.   Implement QoS to prioritize application traffic.
D.   Use a CDN to service the application.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QoS (Quality of Service) allows the network administrator to prioritize critical traffic – such as the cloud-based application – over less important traffic. This ensures that even during high bandwidth usage, essential application traffic maintains acceptable performance. Limiting users is restrictive and does not address the root cause. Leasing a Direct Connect (or dedicated line) is effective but expensive, not cost-effective for most use cases. A CDN (Content Delivery Network) improves performance for static content delivery, not for cloud applications requiring real-time interaction. Implementing QoS is the most cost-effective way to reduce lag for prioritized application traffic during congestion.
NEW QUESTION 513
Users in a company report that after walking from one room to another, wireless connectivity is lost. The SSID is available, but the users have to manually reconnect every time they change rooms. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this issue?
A.   Each room has wireless interference.
B.   There is poor wireless coverage.
C.   MAC filtering is applied in the WLAN.
D.   Roaming configuration is disabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Roaming configuration allows wireless clients to seamlessly switch between access points (APs) without manual reconnection when moving through different coverage areas. If roaming is disabled or not optimized, users must manually reconnect when changing rooms, despite the SSID being visible. Wireless interference might cause weak signal or dropped packets, but not require manual reconnection. Poor coverage would result in no signal at all, not just requiring manual reconnection. MAC filtering restricts access by device MAC addresses, but wouldn’t typically vary room by room or require manual reconnection. The described behavior points to roaming configuration being disabled.
NEW QUESTION 514
A network administrator needs to monitor data from recently installed firewalls in multiple locations. Which of the following solutions would best meet the administrator’s needs?
A.   IDS
B.   IPS
C.   SIEM
D.   SNMPv2
Answer: C
Explanation:
A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system collects, aggregates, analyzes, and displays security data from multiple sources – like firewalls, IDS/IPS, and other devices – in real time. It is the best solution for centralized monitoring across multiple locations. IDS detects malicious activity but does not provide centralized log aggregation or monitoring. IPS prevents attacks but is not used for centralized monitoring across sites. SNMPv2 is used for monitoring device status and performance, not security event analysis or log correlation. SIEM is the ideal solution for monitoring data from firewalls in multiple locations.
NEW QUESTION 515
Which of the following is an example of a split-tunnel VPN?
A.   Only public resources are accessed through the user’s internet connection.
B.   Encrypted resources are accessed through separate tunnels.
C.   All corporate and public resources are accessed through routing to on-site servers.
D.   ACLs are used to balance network traffic through different connections.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A split-tunnel VPN sends only corporate/private traffic through the VPN tunnel, while public/non-corporate traffic goes out directly over the user’s normal internet connection.
NEW QUESTION 516
A company’s VoIP phone connection is cutting in and out. A senior network engineer is recommending the implementation of a voice VLAN. Which of the following should be configured?
A.   802.1Q tagging.
B.   Jumbo frames.
C.   Native VLAN.
D.   Link aggregation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A voice VLAN relies on IEEE 802.1Q to tag voice traffic with its own VLAN ID, letting switches differentiate and prioritize VoIP packets separately from data traffic. This segmentation reduces contention and stabilizes call quality.
NEW QUESTION 517
During a VoIP call, a user notices inconsistent audio and logs an incident ticket. A network administrator notices inconsistent delays in arrival of the RTP packets. Which of the following troubleshooting tools should the network administrator use to determine the issue?
A.   Toner and probe.
B.   Protocol analyzer.
C.   Cable tester.
D.   Spectrum reader.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A protocol analyzer (e.g., Wireshark) captures and timestamps RTP packets so you can see delay variation (jitter), loss, and sequence issues that cause choppy VoIP audio.
NEW QUESTION 518
Which of the following tools uses ICMP to help determine whether a network host is reachable?
A.   tcpdump
B.   netstat
C.   nslookup
D.   ping
Answer: D
Explanation:
ping sends ICMP Echo Request packets and listens for Echo Replies to confirm a host is reachable and measure round-trip time.
NEW QUESTION 519
Which of the following, in addition to a password, can be asked of a user for MFA?
A.   PIN
B.   Favorite color.
C.   Hard token.
D.   Mother’s maiden name.
Answer: C
Explanation:
MFA needs a different factor than the password (knowledge). A hard token is a possession factor, providing the required second factor.
NEW QUESTION 520
A government entity wants to implement technology that can block websites based on country code. Which of the following will best enable this requirement?
A.   URL filtering.
B.   Content filtering.
C.   DNS poisoning.
D.   MAC filtering.
Answer: A
Explanation:
URL filtering can evaluate domain names, including country-code TLDs, and block requests that match specified countries, enforcing geographic-based website restrictions.
NEW QUESTION 521
A network administrator needs to create a way to redirect a network resource that has been on the local network but is now hosted as a SaaS solution. Which of the following records should be used to accomplish the task?
A.   TXT
B.   AAA
C.   PTR
D.   CNAME
Answer: D
Explanation:
A CNAME record creates an alias from the old internal hostname to the new SaaS hostname, seamlessly redirecting users without changing the original name they access.
NEW QUESTION 522
A network engineer configures an application server so that it automatically adjusts resource allocation as demand changes. This server will host a new application and demand is not predictable. Which of the following concepts does this scenario demonstrate?
A.   Scalability.
B.   Software as a service.
C.   Hybrid cloud.
D.   Elasticity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Elasticity is the cloud capability to automatically add or remove resources in real time based on demand, which fits an application server that adjusts allocation as load fluctuates unpredictably.
NEW QUESTION 523
A user submits an escalated ticket regarding failed logins on their laptop. The user states that the time displayed on the laptop is incorrect. An administrator thinks the issue is related to the NTP. Which of the following should the administrator do next?
A.   Create a plan of action.
B.   Implement a solution.
C.   Identify the problem.
D.   Test the theory.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The administrator already has a theory (NTP time mismatch). The next troubleshooting step is to verify that hypothesis – i.e., test the theory – before planning or implementing a fix.
NEW QUESTION 524
Which of the following objectives does an evil twin achieve?
A.   DNS poisoning.
B.   Login credentials.
C.   ARP spoofing.
D.   Denial of service.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate one, tricking users into connecting and capturing their login credentials during authentication.
NEW QUESTION 525
Which of the following server types is responsible for IP address management for clients?
A.   NTP
B.   FTP
C.   DHCP
D.   LDAP
Answer: C
Explanation:
A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server automatically assigns and manages IP addresses for network clients.
NEW QUESTION 526
Clients report that phones are down. The network technicians determine that PCs and printers are online. However, the phones display the message Searching for service. Which of the following should the technicians check first?
A.   PoE statistics on the switch.
B.   DHCP options.
C.   Data VLANs on switchports.
D.   The default gateway on the switch.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Since only the phones are down and display “Searching for service”, technicians should first check PoE (Power over Ethernet) statistics on the switch to confirm that the phones are receiving power.
NEW QUESTION 527
Which of the following physical installation factors would be the most important when a network switch is installed in a sealed enclosure?
A.   Fire suppression.
B.   Power budget.
C.   Temperature.
D.   Humidity.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Temperature is the most important factor when installing a network switch in a sealed enclosure, as heat buildup can lead to equipment failure without adequate ventilation or cooling.
NEW QUESTION 528
A network engineer is installing new PoE wireless APs. The first five APs deploy successfully, but the sixth one fails to start. Which of the following should the engineer investigate first?
A.   Signal strength.
B.   Duplex mismatch.
C.   Power budget.
D.   CRC.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The engineer should first investigate the power budget, as PoE switches have a maximum power capacity, and exceeding it can prevent additional devices from receiving power.
NEW QUESTION 529
A network technician is working on a PC with a faulty NIC. The host is connected to a switch with secured ports. After testing the connection cables and using a known good NIC. the host is still unable to connect to the network. Which of the following is causing the connection issue?
A.   MAC address of the new card.
B.   BPDU guard settings.
C.   Link aggregation settings.
D.   PoE over power budget.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Switch ports secured with features like port security often allow only specific MAC addresses. Installing a new NIC changes the MAC address, which can prevent the host from connecting if the switch does not recognize the new address.
NEW QUESTION 530
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Also, previewing the NEWEST PassLeader N10-009 dumps online for free on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fcU_ge3wu1CRK6rncYiModx_-QmVhRUj