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NEW QUESTION 910
A security analyst must prevent remote users from accessing malicious URLs. The sites need to be checked inline for reputation, content, or categorization. Which of the following technologies will help secure the enterprise?
A.   VPN
B.   SASE
C.   NGFW
D.   SD-WAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
SASE provides a cloud-delivered, inline secure web gateway with URL reputation, content inspection, and categorization for remote users without backhauling traffic through on-premises firewalls.
NEW QUESTION 911
A systems administrator needs to provide traveling employees with a security measure that will protect company devices regardless of where they are working. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A.   Isolation
B.   Segmentation
C.   ACL
D.   HIPS
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) runs directly on each device, monitoring and blocking malicious activity locally, ensuring protection regardless of the network the traveling employee uses.
NEW QUESTION 912
Which of the following is used to monitor suspicious traffic in real time between multiple systems within an organization?
A.   NetFlow.
B.   Infrared sensors.
C.   Development network.
D.   Honeynet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
NetFlow captures and analyzes real-time traffic flow data across multiple systems, enabling detection of suspicious patterns and anomalies.
NEW QUESTION 913
A remote employee navigates to a shopping website on their company-owned computer. The employee clicks a link that contains a malicious file. Which of the following would prevent this file from downloading?
A.   DLP
B.   FIM
C.   NAC
D.   EDR
Answer: D
Explanation:
An EDR solution actively monitors and blocks malicious behaviors at the endpoint, including intercepting and preventing unauthorized or malicious file downloads, before they can reach the system.
NEW QUESTION 914
A security analyst is reviewing the security of a SaaS application that the company intends to purchase. Which of the following documentations should the security analyst request from the SaaS application vendor?
A.   Service-level agreement.
B.   Third-party audit.
C.   Statement of work.
D.   Data privacy agreement.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A third-party audit report (such as a SOC 2 or ISO 27001 certification) provides independent validation of the vendor’s security controls and assurance of its security posture.
NEW QUESTION 915
A security administrator protects passwords by using hashing. Which of the following best describes what the administrator is doing?
A.   Adding extra characters at the end to increase password length.
B.   Generating a token to make the passwords temporal.
C.   Using mathematical algorithms to make passwords unique.
D.   Creating a rainbow table to protect passwords in a list.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hashing applies mathematical algorithms to transform passwords into unique, fixed-length values, ensuring the original password cannot be reversed from the hash.
NEW QUESTION 916
A customer changes the underlying file structure of a new mobile phone to install a keylogger with administrator permissions. Which of the following does this best describe?
A.   Resource reuse.
B.   Bloatware installation.
C.   Side loading.
D.   Jailbreaking.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Modifying the device’s file structure to gain root access and install unauthorized software describes jailbreaking.
NEW QUESTION 917
A security analyst is reviewing the security or a SaaS application that the company intends to purchase. Which of the following documentations should the security analyst request from the SaaS application vendor?
A.   Service-level agreement.
B.   Third-party audit.
C.   Statement or work.
D.   Data privacy agreement.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A third-party audit provides independent verification that the SaaS vendor’s security controls and processes meet industry standards, which helps the security analyst assess the actual security posture of the application before purchase.
NEW QUESTION 918
While a school district is performing state testing, a security analyst notices all internet services are unavailable. The analyst discovers that ARP poisoning is occurring on the network ana then terminates access for the host. Which of the following is most likely responsive for this malicious activity?
A.   Unskilled attacker.
B.   Shadow IT.
C.   Credential stuffing.
D.   DMARC failure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
ARP poisoning is a basic attack that does not require advanced skills or tools, making it a common method used by unskilled attackers (also known as “script kiddies”) to disrupt network operations.
NEW QUESTION 919
Which of the following hardening techniques must be applied on a container image before deploying it to a production environment? (Choose two.)
A.   Remove default applications.
B.   Install a NIPS.
C.   Disable Telnet.
D.   Reconfigure the DNS.
E.   Add an SFTP server.
F.   Delete the public certificate.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Removing default applications reduces the attack surface by eliminating unnecessary software that could be exploited. Disabling Telnet is essential because it is an insecure protocol, and leaving it enabled can create vulnerabilities within the container.
NEW QUESTION 920
A security patch is applied to a server. Which of the following will validate this remediation?
A.   Rescanning.
B.   Dynamic analysis.
C.   Reporting.
D.   Static analysis.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rescanning the server after applying a security patch confirms whether the vulnerability has been successfully remediated and is no longer detected.
NEW QUESTION 921
The internal security team is investigating a suspicious attachment and wants to perform a behavior analysis in an isolated environment. Which of the following will the security team most likely use?
A.   Sandbox.
B.   Jump server.
C.   Work computer.
D.   Container.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A sandbox provides an isolated environment where suspicious files can be safely executed and monitored for malicious behavior without risking the security of the production network or systems.
NEW QUESTION 922
An analyst discovers a suspicious item in the SQL server logs. Which of the following could be evidence of an attempted SQL injection?
A.   cat /etc/shadow
B.   dig 25.36.99.11
C.   cd ../../../
D.   UserId – 10 OR 1-1
Answer: D
Explanation:
The input “10 OR 1=1” is a common SQL injection technique designed to manipulate SQL queries, allowing unauthorized access or retrieval of data by altering the logic of the query.
NEW QUESTION 923
A company identified the potential for malicious insiders to harm the organization. Which of the following measures should the organization implement to reduce this risk?
A.   Unified threat management.
B.   Web application firewall.
C.   User behavior analytics.
D.   Intrusion detection system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
User behavior analytics monitors and analyzes user activities to detect anomalies or suspicious behavior, making it effective in identifying and reducing the risk posed by malicious insiders.
NEW QUESTION 924
After completing onboarding at a company and reviewing the company’s handbooks and AUP an employee downloads an unapproved application on a company desktop. Which of the following is the best course of action tor the company to take?
A.   Educate the employee’s manager.
B.   Silently uninstall the software.
C.   Ensure the employee completes focused training.
D.   Terminate the employee.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Focused training helps the employee understand the risks and policies regarding software installation, reinforcing compliance and reducing the likelihood of future violations without being overly punitive.
NEW QUESTION 925
An organization has experienced a breach because a hacker utilized a standard users two-year-old password that the hacker found on the dark web. Which of the following would have prevented this attack?
A.   Privileged access management.
B.   Account lockout.
C.   Reuse policy.
D.   Complexity requirements.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A reuse policy prevents users from using old passwords, which helps protect accounts even if previous passwords are compromised and available on the dark web.
NEW QUESTION 926
An organization has published a list of domains that end users are not authorized to visit on company devices in order to mitigate data loss or installation or malicious code. A security analyst observes multiple successful attempts to reach a new suspicious domain from an end user’s workstation. Which of the following options can best prevent future access to unauthorized domains?
A.   Assign user awareness training.
B.   Modify the unauthorized content policy.
C.   Deploy an allow list.
D.   Update the proxy filters.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Updating the proxy filters will block access to the new suspicious domain at the network level, effectively preventing users from reaching unauthorized or malicious websites in the future.
NEW QUESTION 927
Users report that certain processes from a batch job are not working correctly and various resources are unavailable. An application owner provides the source and destination address information, and the errors are replicated for troubleshooting purposes. Which of the following should the security team perform next to help isolate the ongoing issue?
A.   Penetration testing.
B.   Packet capture.
C.   Vulnerability scan.
D.   Firewall rues analysis.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Packet capture allows the security team to analyze network traffic between the source and destination addresses, helping to identify communication issues or resource availability problems in real time.
NEW QUESTION 928
A company is experiencing loss of availability due to excessive traffic to their front-end web servers. The company hires a digital forensics expert to investigate the incident. Which of the following logs should the digital forensics expert review first to diagnose the details of this incident?
A.   Router.
B.   Load balancer.
C.   Switch.
D.   Firewall.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Load balancer logs provide detailed information about incoming web traffic and distribution to the front-end servers, making them the most relevant source to diagnose excessive traffic and availability issues.
NEW QUESTION 929
An employee decides to collect PII data from the company’s system for personal use. The employee compresses the data into a single encrypted file before sending the file to their personal email. The security department becomes aware of the attempted misuse and blocks the attachment from leaving the corporate environment. Which of the following types of employee training would most likely reduce the occurrence of this type of issue? (Choose two.)
A.   Privacy legislation.
B.   Social engineering.
C.   Risk management.
D.   Company compliance.
E.   Phishing.
F.   Remote work.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
– Privacy legislation: teaching employees the legal obligations for handling PII (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA) makes them aware that personal use/transfer is prohibited and punishable.
– Company compliance: training on internal policies and acceptable-use rules reinforces exactly what the organization allows or forbids with company data, reducing intentional misuse.
NEW QUESTION 930
Which of the following is the best way to remove personal data from a social media account that is no longer being used?
A.   Exercise the right to be forgotten.
B.   Uninstall the social media application.
C.   Perform a factory reset.
D.   Terminate the social media account.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Exercising the right to be forgotten compels the provider to erase your stored personal data from its systems; simply deleting the app, resetting a device, or even closing the account may leave data retained in backups or archives.
NEW QUESTION 931
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of an enterprise environment wants to ensure that users cannot navigate to known malicious domains. The CISO also wants web traffic on the network inspected for malicious activity. Which of the following actions should the CISO take?
A.   Place the intrusion system into IPS mode to block incoming malicious domains, and ensure secure protocol selection is enforced on all network segments.
B.   Deploy EDR software on all company systems, and perform user behavior analytics to detect users going to anomalous domains.
C.   Ensure the company’s name servers use DNS filtering, and configure systems to use a centralized TLS proxy to inspect all HTTP and HTTPS traffic.
D.   Set up a NAC on all segments of the company network, and set the network firewall to block known malicious port numbers at the perimeter.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A DNS filter blocks lookups to known bad domains, stopping users from reaching them, and a centralized TLS (HTTPS) inspection proxy lets the organization decrypt/inspect HTTP/HTTPS traffic for malicious content before re-encrypting it outbound.
NEW QUESTION 932
A user receives a malicious text message that routes to a fake bank login. Which of the following attack types does this scenario describe?
A.   Impersonation
B.   Phishing
C.   Vishing
D.   Smishing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Smishing is phishing delivered via SMS/text messages; the malicious text lured the user to a fake bank site.
NEW QUESTION 933
A group of people is working together to run multiple ransomware attacks against targets that the group selected to yield the most financial gain. Which of the following best describes this type of activity?
A.   Organized crime.
B.   Nation-state actor.
C.   Shadow IT.
D.   Hacktivism.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Coordinated ransomware campaigns for profit are characteristic of organized crime groups – criminal enterprises motivated by financial gain rather than ideology or national interest.
NEW QUESTION 934
A security officer observes that a software development team is not complying with its corporate security policy on encrypting confidential data. Which of the following categories refers to this type of non-compliance?
A.   External
B.   Standard
C.   Regulation
D.   Internal
Answer: D
Explanation:
It’s a violation of an internal corporate security policy, so the non-compliance is classified as internal.
NEW QUESTION 935
Which of the following data types best describes an AI tool developed by a company to automate the ticketing system under a specific contract?
A.   Classified.
B.   Regulated information.
C.   Open source.
D.   Intellectual property.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The AI tool is a proprietary creation owned by the company under contract, making it intellectual property.
NEW QUESTION 936
Which of the following would best allow a company to prevent access to systems from the internet?
A.   Containerization
B.   Virtualization
C.   SD-WAN
D.   Air-gapped
Answer: D
Explanation:
An air-gapped system is physically and logically isolated from any external (internet-facing) network, so packets from the internet simply have no path to reach it. This architectural separation is the most definitive way to prevent internet access altogether, rather than just limiting or monitoring it.
NEW QUESTION 937
While conducting a business continuity tabletop exercise, the security team becomes concerned by potential impacts if a generator were to develop a fault during an extended outage. Which of the following is the team most likely to consider when conducting and planning infrastructure maintenance activities?
A.   RPO
B.   ARO
C.   MTBF
D.   MTTR
Answer: C
Explanation:
They’re worried about how long the generator can run before it’s likely to fail during a prolonged outage. MTBF quantifies the expected operational time between failures, guiding preventive maintenance schedules and part replacement intervals to reduce the chance of a fault when the generator is most needed.
NEW QUESTION 938
A security analyst is working with the IT group to define appropriate procedures for the destruction of media and assets in the enterprise environment. Which of the following methods provides the strongest level of assurance that the data has been disposed of properly?
A.   Degaussing.
B.   Multipass wipe.
C.   Hashing.
D.   Erasure.
E.   Shredding.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Physically destroying the media (industrial shredding/pulverizing) renders the platters/chips irrecoverable, providing the highest assurance that no residual data can be reconstructed – unlike logical wipes or degaussing, which can fail or be bypassed on certain media types.
NEW QUESTION 939
Which of the following vulnerabilities results in an application running extremely slowly due to an abnormally large number of incoming packets?
A.   Race conditions.
B.   Cross-site scripting.
C.   Buffer overflow.
D.   Side loading.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An overwhelming volume of packets can fill an application’s input buffers faster than it can process them. Once those buffers are saturated, the program spends excessive time handling overflow conditions (or even overwrites memory), causing dramatic slowdowns and potential instability – classic symptoms of a buffer overflow-style resource exhaustion.
NEW QUESTION 940
A company experiences a breach. The investigation reveals that the threat actor used a zero-day vulnerability to gain access and move laterally. Which of the following would best improve the company’s security posture and minimize the time to detect this type of incident?
A.   NAC
B.   IDS
C.   DLP
D.   UBA
Answer: D
Explanation:
UBA builds baselines of normal user and entity activity (logins, data access patterns, movement between hosts) and flags deviations – the kind of anomalous lateral movement a zero-day-driven intruder generates. Because it’s behavior-based rather than signature-based, it can surface unseen exploits faster and shrink detection time for novel attacks.
NEW QUESTION 941
Which of the following prevents unauthorized modifications to internal processes, assets, and security controls?
A.   Change management.
B.   Playbooks.
C.   Incident response.
D.   Acceptable use policy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A formal change management process requires every alteration to be requested, reviewed, approved, documented, and tested before deployment. That governance gate keeps internal processes, assets, and security controls from being modified ad hoc or by unauthorized personnel, ensuring integrity and auditability of all changes.
NEW QUESTION 942
A user sits in a coffee shop on a government-issued laptop. A stranger starts a conversation with the user and starts asking about where the user works, what division the user works in, and additional personal information. Which of the following best describes the stranger’s behavior?
A.   Insider threat.
B.   Phishing.
C.   Social engineering.
D.   Risky.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The stranger is manipulating a casual conversation to elicit sensitive details (employer, division, personal info). This intentional information-gathering through interpersonal interaction is classic social engineering – exploiting human trust rather than technical flaws.
NEW QUESTION 943
A company’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to enhance the capabilities of the incident response team. The CISO directs the incident response team to deploy a tool that rapidly analyzes host and network data from potentially compromised systems and forwards the data for further correlation and reporting. Which of the following tools should the incident response team deploy?
A.   NAC
B.   IPS
C.   SIEM
D.   EDR
Answer: D
Explanation:
EDR agents sit on hosts, continuously collect rich telemetry (processes, connections, file changes), and can capture network indicators from those endpoints. They rapidly analyze this data locally and ship it to a backend where it’s correlated and reported – that’s what the CISO wants to speed detection and investigation of compromised systems.
NEW QUESTION 944
Which of the following is a component of a risk register?
A.   Key risk indicators.
B.   Continuous risk assessment.
C.   Risk appetite.
D.   Risk culture.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A risk register is a catalog of identified risks and their details; for each entry you track signals that a risk is materializing. Those measurable signals are key risk indicators (KRIs) – thresholds or metrics (e.g., failed logins/day, patch backlog age) tied to a specific risk so you can spot escalation early and trigger the planned response. Continuous assessment, appetite, and culture are program-level concepts, not individual register fields.
NEW QUESTION 945
Which of the following most securely protects data at rest?
A.   TLS 1.2
B.   AES-256
C.   Masking
D.   Salting
Answer: B
Explanation:
AES with a 256-bit key is strong, standards-approved symmetric encryption specifically suited for protecting stored data. It renders the ciphertext unreadable without the key, meets common regulatory requirements (e.g., FIPS 140-2 validated implementations), and provides far stronger assurance for data at rest than transport protocols, masking, or password salting techniques that don’t actually encrypt the full dataset.
NEW QUESTION 946
Which of the following is a vulnerability concern for end-of-life hardware?
A.   Failure to follow hardware disposal procedures could result in unintended data release.
B.   The supply chain may not have replacement hardware.
C.   Newly released software may require computing resources not available on legacy hardware.
D.   The vendor may stop providing patches and updates.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Once hardware reaches end of life, manufacturers typically end security support. Without new firmware/microcode patches or drivers, newly discovered vulnerabilities remain unpatched, leaving the device exposed indefinitely – this is the core security concern with EOL gear.
NEW QUESTION 947
A company’s security team is reviewing its business continuity plan and must determine the amount of time needed for operations to resume after a disaster. Which of the following describes the time frame the security team is trying to determine?
A.   Recovery time objective.
B.   Recovery point objective.
C.   Mean time between failures.
D.   Mean time to repair.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RTO is the maximum acceptable downtime: the target window within which systems and operations must be restored after a disruption. When the team asks “how long until we’re back up?”, they’re defining the RTO.
NEW QUESTION 948
Which of the following is a risk for a company using end-of-life applications on its network?
A.   Default credentials.
B.   Open service ports.
C.   Vulnerable software.
D.   Insecure networks.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 949
Which of the following makes IaC a preferred security architecture over traditional infrastructure models?
A.   Common attacks are less likely to be effective.
B.   Configuration can be better managed and replicated.
C.   Outsourcing to a third party with more expertise in network defense is possible.
D.   Optimization can occur across a number of computing instances.
Answer: B
Explanation:
IaC stores infrastructure definitions as version-controlled code, so every change is reviewable, auditable, and repeatable. You can spin up identical, securely preconfigured environments from the same template, eliminating drift and undocumented tweaks that plague traditional, manually built infrastructure. This consistency and traceability are what make IaC the more secure choice.
NEW QUESTION 950
Which of the following is an advantage of a microservice-based architecture over traditional software architectures?
A.   Updates can be done one or more times per day if security issues arise.
B.   Managing communication between microservices is more streamlined.
C.   The internal structure of the code is hidden from users, making exploits more difficult to write.
D.   The services are written by a single team and can be debugged more quickly.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Microservices are small, independently deployable components. Because each service can be built, tested, and released on its own pipeline, a security fix in one area doesn’t require rebuilding and redeploying the whole application. That independence enables rapid, even multiple-per-day patches, shrinking exposure windows when vulnerabilities are found.
NEW QUESTION 951
An organization purchases software from an overseas company. The organization’s IDS solution detects that advertising data from the software is unexpectedly reporting back to the overseas company. Which of the following threat vectors does this best describe?
A.   Espionage.
B.   Supply chain.
C.   Nation-state.
D.   Insider threat.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The compromise came through third-party software the organization obtained and trusted; its unexpected “phone home” behavior is a classic supply chain risk, where embedded code or telemetry from a vendor creates a hidden data exfiltration path.
NEW QUESTION 952
Which of the following can be best used to discover a company’s publicly available breach information?
A.   OSINT
B.   SIEM
C.   CVE
D.   CVSS
Answer: A
Explanation:
OSINT involves systematically gathering and analyzing publicly available data – news reports, paste sites, breach repositories, darknet mirrors, social media – to see whether details of your company’s breach have been exposed. It’s purpose-built for finding exactly this kind of public breach information.
NEW QUESTION 953
An accounting clerk sent money to an attacker’s bank account after receiving fraudulent instructions over the phone to use a new account. Which of the following would most likely prevent this activity in the future?
A.   Standardizing security incident reporting.
B.   Executing regular phishing campaigns.
C.   Implementing insider threat detection measures.
D.   Updating processes for sending wire transfers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Stronger, verified procedures (e.g., dual approval, out-of-band callback to a known contact, preapproved account lists) make it impossible for a single clerk to act on a phone request alone. By baking verification steps into the wire-transfer workflow, future fraudulent instructions get stopped at the process gate.
NEW QUESTION 954
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